For questions 1 to 10 :Complete the following series.
1)2,3,11,38,102,__
1)200 2)208 3)227 4)236
2)6,27,138,831,5820,__
1)50523 2)46563 3)41203 4)43123
3)2,8,13,41,79,239,__
1)475 2)470 3)467 4)462
4)25,62,123,214,341,__
1)488 2)510 3)496 4)574
5)11,48,927,25125,__
1)49343 2)81729 3)1001000 4)64512
6)3,4,9,32,155,__
1)729 2)924 3)876 4)961
7)29,27,31,29,37,31,41,__
1)30 2)33 3)35 4)37
8)8,9,16,51,200,__
1)995 2)805 3)795 4)1005
9)15,66,132,363,726,__
1)1353 2)1303 3)1293 4)1403
10)5040,2520,3360,2800,3200,__
1)3000 2)2880 3)2960 4)3020
For questions 11-25:Choose the correct alternative from the given choices
11)In a certain code language, if the word PRINTER is coded as EINPRRT and the word SERVICE is coded as EINPRRT and the word SERVICE is coded as CEEIRSV, then how is the word SCANNING coded in that language?
1)ACIGSNNN 2)ACGNNNSI 3)ACGINNNS 4)ACIGNNNS
12)In a certain code language, if the word MATERIAL is coded as LAIRETAM, then how is the word FOUNDATION coded in that language?
1)NOITADNOF 2)NOITDANUOF 3)NOITANDUOF 4)NIOTADNUOF
13)In a certain code language, if the word PROJECT is coded as QTRNJIA, then how is the word PACKAGE coded in the language?
1)QCFOFML 2)QCFOEML 3)QCFOFNK 4)QCFOFMK
14)In a certain code language, if the word KIDNAP is coded as 30, and the word TERRORIST as 72, then how is the word MISCHIEF coded in that language?
1)80 2)56 3)72 4)42
15)In a certain code language, if the word MADRID is coded as 49, and the word TOKYO as 86, then how is the word RANGOON coded in that language?
1)83 2)85 3)84 4)86
16)Raju decided to go to Ravi's house.So he started out by his bike.Initially he travelled 10 km towards east and then he turned to his left and travelled 5 km.Later he travelled 8 km more to his right before turning to his left to travel 3 km more.Finally he travelled 3 km to his left to reach Raju's house.What is the distance between Raju's starting point and Ravi's house and in which direction is Ravi's house and in which direction is Ravi's house with respect to Raju's starting point?
1)17 km,South-east 2)23 km,North-east 3)17 km,North-east 4)23 km,North-west
17)One evening,Srinivas and Balaji were standing in a park,facing each other.It was observed that Balaji's shadow was falling to his right.Then which direction was Srinivas facing?
1)East 2)West 3)North 4)South
18)If 2*5=17 and 3*4=19 then 5*6=?
1)41 2)30 3)11 4)31
19)If 3#4=7 and 7#11=72 then 6#10=?
1)60 2)61 3)16 4)64
20)In a certain code language '+' means '*','*' means '-','-' means '/' and '/' means '+',then what is the simplified value for the following expression in which the mathematical operators are written according to the above code?
12-4+15*4+6/10
Answer
1)3 1)3
It is of the form 0^2+2,1^2+2,3^2+2,6^2+2,10^2+2,.....
The sequence of n is 0,1,3,6,10,... so the next n is 15 => 15^2+2
2)2
The function is S(n)=S(n-1)*(n+2) + 3 ,n>1
=6 ,n=1
3)1
It is of the form S(n)*3+2 for even and S(n)*2-3 for odd where S(n) is the nth element.
So 7th element = 239*2-3=475
4)2
The function is S(n)=(n+2)^3 -2
5)1
The numbers in the sequence is a combination of n^2 and n^3 and n is odd.
6)2
The function is S(n)=S(n-1)*n-n n>1
=3 n=1
7)
8)1
The function is S(n)=(S(n-1)-1)*(n-1) n>1
=8 n=1
9)
10)
1 2)256 3)68.6 4)53
Tuesday, March 23, 2010
Puzzles 1
For questions 1-10 : Find the odd one
1)
1)518 2)448 3)426 4)574
2)
1)4 2)28 3)48 4)100
3)
1)AON 2)EWR 3)IEV 4)OLB
4)
1)Mouse 2)Monitor 3)Keyboard 4)Joy stick
5)
1).jpeg 2).exe 3).jpg 4).gif
6)
1)Scissors 2)Knives 3)Trousers 4)Knickers
7)
1)Kill 2)Will 3)Fill 4)Bill
8)
1)Xylophone 2)Telephone 3)Violin 4)Clarinet
9)
1)Nucles 2)Mitochondria 3)Celloplasm 4)Tissue
10)
1)RAM 2)Cache 3)Hard disk 4)Compact Disc
Direction for questions 11 to 15: Each question contains five or six statements followed by four sets of three statements each.Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
11)
(A)No teacher is patient.
(B)Some teacher are not patients.
(C)No teachers is a doctor.
(D)Some nurses are not teachers.
(E)Some nurses are doctors.
(F)All patients are doctors.
1)CAF 2)CED 3)BCF 4)All the three
12)
(A)Some bowlers are not cricketers.
(B)All batsmen are bowlers.
(C)All cricketers are not batsmen.
(D)All bowlers are cricketers.
(E)Some cricketers are bowlers.
(F)Some bowlers are not batsmen.
1)ECF 2)ABC 3)CDF 4)None of these
13)
(A)Some SMS are not GMS.
(B)Each SMS is TMS.
(C)Some SMS are MMS.
(D)No MMS is GMS.
(E)Most TMS is MMS.
(F)No GMS is TMS.
1)ADC 2)DEF 3)BDF 4)None of these
14)
(A)No CPI is BJP.
(B)No BJP is Congress.
(C)Some BJP's are SAD
(D)No Congress is CPI
(E)Some SAD's are not Congress.
(F)Some SAD's are CPI's.
1)ABD 2)ECB 3)DFC 4)None of these
15)
(A)Every credit card is not a green card.
(B)Some credit cards are direct credit cards.
(C)Some direct credit cards are not debit cards.
(D)No credit card is a debit card.
(E)Some green cards are debit cards.
(F)No credit card is a direct credit card.
1)CDF 2)AED 3)BCD 4)None of these
Directions for questions 16 to 20: Read the following passage, and from the statements that follow each passage choose the one that can be concluded from the passage.
16)Those who can speak English. Some Marathi speaking people cannot speak English. All Bengali speaking people are Indians.All Indians can speak Hindi.
1)Some Bengali speaking people cannot speak Marathi.
2)Some English speaking people are not Indians.
3)Some Marathi speaking people cannot speak Bengali.
4)None of these
17)Some non vegetarians are animals.Vegetarian eat only vegatables.All non-vegetarians are vegetarians. Those who eat only vegetables do not eat meat.No animal is a human.
1)Some, who do not eat meat,are human.
2)No animal is vegetarian.
3)Human do not eat meat.
4)None of these.
18)Norah Jones is a singer.Those who don't know how to play violin,know how to play guitar.Those who sing songs,don't know how to play violin.Every singer sings songs.
1)Singers know how to play guitar.
2)All singers don't know how to play violine.
3)Norah Jones knows how to play guitar.
4)None of these.
19)Coal is black.Somethings which glitter are diamonds.No glitter is gold.Diamond is coal.
1)Some gold is coal.
2)Somethings, which are gold are not black.
3)Somethings, which are black are not gold.
4)None of these
20)Leaders are assertive people.Trainees are developers.Those who take classes are not Doctors.Doctors are not leaders.Some developers take classes.
1)Some assertive people are not trainees.
2)All trainees are not assertive people.
3)Some leaders are not trainees.
4)None of these.
Answer
1)
2)3,
The number obtained by dividing 48 with 4 is 12 which is even while all the others get odd number for the same.
3)4,
The sequence has to be AON,EWR,IEV,MMZ
4)2
The remaining 3 are input devices.
5)2
The remaining 3 represent an image.
6)3
Trousers can only take a plural form while others can also take a singular form.
7)
8)
9)4
All the other three lie inside a cell.
10)
11)4
12)3
13)1
14)2
15)3
16)3
17)1
18)3
19)3
20)4
1)
1)518 2)448 3)426 4)574
2)
1)4 2)28 3)48 4)100
3)
1)AON 2)EWR 3)IEV 4)OLB
4)
1)Mouse 2)Monitor 3)Keyboard 4)Joy stick
5)
1).jpeg 2).exe 3).jpg 4).gif
6)
1)Scissors 2)Knives 3)Trousers 4)Knickers
7)
1)Kill 2)Will 3)Fill 4)Bill
8)
1)Xylophone 2)Telephone 3)Violin 4)Clarinet
9)
1)Nucles 2)Mitochondria 3)Celloplasm 4)Tissue
10)
1)RAM 2)Cache 3)Hard disk 4)Compact Disc
Direction for questions 11 to 15: Each question contains five or six statements followed by four sets of three statements each.Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
11)
(A)No teacher is patient.
(B)Some teacher are not patients.
(C)No teachers is a doctor.
(D)Some nurses are not teachers.
(E)Some nurses are doctors.
(F)All patients are doctors.
1)CAF 2)CED 3)BCF 4)All the three
12)
(A)Some bowlers are not cricketers.
(B)All batsmen are bowlers.
(C)All cricketers are not batsmen.
(D)All bowlers are cricketers.
(E)Some cricketers are bowlers.
(F)Some bowlers are not batsmen.
1)ECF 2)ABC 3)CDF 4)None of these
13)
(A)Some SMS are not GMS.
(B)Each SMS is TMS.
(C)Some SMS are MMS.
(D)No MMS is GMS.
(E)Most TMS is MMS.
(F)No GMS is TMS.
1)ADC 2)DEF 3)BDF 4)None of these
14)
(A)No CPI is BJP.
(B)No BJP is Congress.
(C)Some BJP's are SAD
(D)No Congress is CPI
(E)Some SAD's are not Congress.
(F)Some SAD's are CPI's.
1)ABD 2)ECB 3)DFC 4)None of these
15)
(A)Every credit card is not a green card.
(B)Some credit cards are direct credit cards.
(C)Some direct credit cards are not debit cards.
(D)No credit card is a debit card.
(E)Some green cards are debit cards.
(F)No credit card is a direct credit card.
1)CDF 2)AED 3)BCD 4)None of these
Directions for questions 16 to 20: Read the following passage, and from the statements that follow each passage choose the one that can be concluded from the passage.
16)Those who can speak English. Some Marathi speaking people cannot speak English. All Bengali speaking people are Indians.All Indians can speak Hindi.
1)Some Bengali speaking people cannot speak Marathi.
2)Some English speaking people are not Indians.
3)Some Marathi speaking people cannot speak Bengali.
4)None of these
17)Some non vegetarians are animals.Vegetarian eat only vegatables.All non-vegetarians are vegetarians. Those who eat only vegetables do not eat meat.No animal is a human.
1)Some, who do not eat meat,are human.
2)No animal is vegetarian.
3)Human do not eat meat.
4)None of these.
18)Norah Jones is a singer.Those who don't know how to play violin,know how to play guitar.Those who sing songs,don't know how to play violin.Every singer sings songs.
1)Singers know how to play guitar.
2)All singers don't know how to play violine.
3)Norah Jones knows how to play guitar.
4)None of these.
19)Coal is black.Somethings which glitter are diamonds.No glitter is gold.Diamond is coal.
1)Some gold is coal.
2)Somethings, which are gold are not black.
3)Somethings, which are black are not gold.
4)None of these
20)Leaders are assertive people.Trainees are developers.Those who take classes are not Doctors.Doctors are not leaders.Some developers take classes.
1)Some assertive people are not trainees.
2)All trainees are not assertive people.
3)Some leaders are not trainees.
4)None of these.
Answer
1)
2)3,
The number obtained by dividing 48 with 4 is 12 which is even while all the others get odd number for the same.
3)4,
The sequence has to be AON,EWR,IEV,MMZ
4)2
The remaining 3 are input devices.
5)2
The remaining 3 represent an image.
6)3
Trousers can only take a plural form while others can also take a singular form.
7)
8)
9)4
All the other three lie inside a cell.
10)
11)4
12)3
13)1
14)2
15)3
16)3
17)1
18)3
19)3
20)4
Monday, March 15, 2010
Microsoft interview Questions
Round 1: Written test
Paper style: 3 subjective questions
Time limit: 1½ hour
Question 1: Finding output....
It was string cruncher program. First remove all repeated consecutive substring with length 1, then delete substring of length 2 and so on...
Example : string is “abcabeccced”
After removing repeated substring of length 1: “abcababceccced” --> “abcababceced” (2 'c' are removed)
After removing repeated substring of length 2: “abcababceced” --> “abcabceced” (substring “ab” is removed)
and so on...
Question 2: Writing a program.
Definition: You are given 3 integer arrays A, B and C of length n1, n2 and n3 respectively. All arrays are sorted. We define triplet of these 3 arrays as (x,y,z) where x is any integer from A, y from B and z from C. We define distance of triplet as maximum difference among triplet elements, i.e. Maximum of x – y, y – z or z – x. Write a program to find minimum triplet distance. (means there are n1*n2*n3 number of possible triplets are possible...among all triplets which triplet has minimum distance...Give only distance, but not triplet elements). Your program must be as much efficient as possible.
Question 3: Writing program.
Definition: You are given 2 integer numbers in linked list form. Add those 2 numbers.
Example: First number is 234 and second number is 35. So, you are provided with 2 linked lists 2->3->4 and 3->5. Your answer must be 2->6->9. (Make sure to take care of carry number). This example was given in paper.
Round 2: Group Interview
All candidates who had cleared the written test were called for group interview. Here we were given 3 problems one by one. Time limit was between 15 to 20 minutes. Once they gave problem definition we were supposed to think on it and discuss our ideas and logic about solving that problem with one of the representatives from Microsoft. Once that representative was convinced with our logic then we had to write code for that problem on paper.
Problem 1: You are given a string. Develop a function to remove duplicate characters from that string. String could be of any length. Your algorithm must be in space. If you wish you can use constant size extra space which is not dependent any how on string size. Your algorithm must be of complexity of O(n). Example: Given string is BANANAS. Output must be BANS. All repeated characters are removed.
Problem 2: You have a tree and address of its root. Write an efficient program to test whether a given tree is Binary search Tree or not. (Hint: In-order traversal of binary search tree is sorted in increasing order. Use this property to develop program)
Problem 3: You have 2 sorted lists and a function that merge that 2 lists such that output is again sorted and duplicates are removed. That means output is union of those 2 lists in sorted form.
Example: First list is 2->3->5->6->8 and second list is 4->5->6->7 and output of function is 2->3->4->5->6->7->8.
Develop test cases to test given function such that your test cases ensures that given function works for every situation. That is if inputs are valid then it gives proper output in any case or otherwise it shows error message.
Round 3: First Technical Interview
All those who had cleared group interview were called for first technical interview. They were taking minimum 2 hours for first interview. Some of us also faced interview for 3 or more hours.
Round 4: Second Technical Interview
All those who had cleared first technical interview were called for second interview. This was last round of interview. They took 1½ to 2 hours for this second interview.
I don't remember all the questions which were asked to me in both interviews. But still some of the questions which I can remember (almost 80 to 90% questions) are listed below.
In both interview they ask questions from C/C++, java, OS, Data structure and algorithms, Microprocessors and compiler constructions. With this, they also asked me to develop more than 6 to 8 programs. You can develop all programs in 5 to 7 minutes. But after writing program they asked to find its complexity and try to reduce the complexity and write the program again. In this way it took almost 15 to 20 min for each program. Some took less than 15 minutes also.
Some of the interview questions are as follows:
1. You are given a linked list and block size k. Reverse block of size k from list.
For example you are given linked list of 1000 nodes and block size is 5 then instead of reversing whole list, reverse first 5 elements, then 6 to 10 elements, then 11 to 15 elements, and so on...You have singly linked list and your algorithm which you will implement must be in space, that is no extra space is allowed.
2. You are given a tree and any 2 nodes of that tree. Find common parent of both nodes. Develop as much efficient program as you can.
3. In unix there is a command called “tail”. Implement that command in C.
4. Some questions about race condition (OS)
5. Questions related to semaphores.
6. Questions related to mutex. Applications of mutex. How to implement mutex in OS?
7. Questions about Critical region (OS).
8. How to ensure that race condition doesn't occur. Give your view as you are OS designer.
9. How to ensure that each process lock the critical region before they enter in it. As OS designer How will you force the process to do this?
10. Questions on IPC
11. Questions on Shared memory and Message passing mechanism.
12. Difference between system call and API call
13. How system call works? What happens when system call is invoked?
14. Different types of system calls?
15. Some questions from microprocessor. About Interrupts
16. Types of Interrupts. What happened when interrupt is called?
17. You are given a hard copy of a program which contains some errors. Your job is to find all types of errors from it. And discuss why is it an error. Write correct program for the same.
18. You are given a linked list and a number n. You also have a function to delete all nodes from that list which are at position which multiple of n in the list.
Example: if number is 3 then delete 3rd, 6th, 9th ,...nodes form the list. Develop a program that tests whether given function works properly or not. (In short they are asking me to develop general program for all test cases. By running that program all tests can be performed.)
19. Questions on java. Exception handling
20. Need of catch and finally block in java exception handling..
21. How will you create your own exception.. Explain with example.
22. Some questions on compiler construction. What is parser? What is input to the parser and what is output of parser? Difference between top down and bottom up parser.
23. F(1) = 1.
F(2n) = F (n) and F(2n+1) = F(n) + F(n+1).
Develop recursive program.
24. You are given a string which contains some special characters. You also have set of special characters. You are given other string (call it as pattern string). Your job is to write a program to replace each special characters in given string by pattern string. You are not allowed to create new resulting string. You need to allocate some new memory to given existing string but constraint is you can only allocate memory one time. Allocate memory exactly what you need not more not less.
25. Assume that your friend is writing a book . He gives you a file that contains that book. Your job is to develop an algorithm for indexing of that book. In every book there is one index at end which contains some words which are not there in normal vocabulary dictionary. It also contains page number for reference. You can use any data structure you want. You need to justify why you have used that data structure and also need to justify your logic.
26. Question from my B.E. final semester project. Asked me to explain whole project.
27. Question from everything written on my resume.
28. Question from my every project I did. They asked me to explain each project and then how to do some modification? That modification will be suggested by interviewer himself.
29. My experience in Teaching assistantship.
30. They had my written test answer sheet. They opened it and asked me to explain why I gave that output or why I implement that logic. How did I arrive to that solution which I had written in answer sheet.
31. In written test, for second question I had implement a program which was not much efficient. During interview they ask me to optimize my program. They also gave hint to optimize it.
32. During group interview, in second problem I was only able to discuss logic I was unable to develop program in given time limit. Interviewer knew this. She asked me to develop that program during interview.
33. Which is your favorite software tool? If you are allowed to add any feature in it which feature you will add?
34. Which is your favorite subject? Some questions from that subject.
35. Something about yourself , your hobbies, interests, strengths and weakness.
Paper style: 3 subjective questions
Time limit: 1½ hour
Question 1: Finding output....
It was string cruncher program. First remove all repeated consecutive substring with length 1, then delete substring of length 2 and so on...
Example : string is “abcabeccced”
After removing repeated substring of length 1: “abcababceccced” --> “abcababceced” (2 'c' are removed)
After removing repeated substring of length 2: “abcababceced” --> “abcabceced” (substring “ab” is removed)
and so on...
Question 2: Writing a program.
Definition: You are given 3 integer arrays A, B and C of length n1, n2 and n3 respectively. All arrays are sorted. We define triplet of these 3 arrays as (x,y,z) where x is any integer from A, y from B and z from C. We define distance of triplet as maximum difference among triplet elements, i.e. Maximum of x – y, y – z or z – x. Write a program to find minimum triplet distance. (means there are n1*n2*n3 number of possible triplets are possible...among all triplets which triplet has minimum distance...Give only distance, but not triplet elements). Your program must be as much efficient as possible.
Question 3: Writing program.
Definition: You are given 2 integer numbers in linked list form. Add those 2 numbers.
Example: First number is 234 and second number is 35. So, you are provided with 2 linked lists 2->3->4 and 3->5. Your answer must be 2->6->9. (Make sure to take care of carry number). This example was given in paper.
Round 2: Group Interview
All candidates who had cleared the written test were called for group interview. Here we were given 3 problems one by one. Time limit was between 15 to 20 minutes. Once they gave problem definition we were supposed to think on it and discuss our ideas and logic about solving that problem with one of the representatives from Microsoft. Once that representative was convinced with our logic then we had to write code for that problem on paper.
Problem 1: You are given a string. Develop a function to remove duplicate characters from that string. String could be of any length. Your algorithm must be in space. If you wish you can use constant size extra space which is not dependent any how on string size. Your algorithm must be of complexity of O(n). Example: Given string is BANANAS. Output must be BANS. All repeated characters are removed.
Problem 2: You have a tree and address of its root. Write an efficient program to test whether a given tree is Binary search Tree or not. (Hint: In-order traversal of binary search tree is sorted in increasing order. Use this property to develop program)
Problem 3: You have 2 sorted lists and a function that merge that 2 lists such that output is again sorted and duplicates are removed. That means output is union of those 2 lists in sorted form.
Example: First list is 2->3->5->6->8 and second list is 4->5->6->7 and output of function is 2->3->4->5->6->7->8.
Develop test cases to test given function such that your test cases ensures that given function works for every situation. That is if inputs are valid then it gives proper output in any case or otherwise it shows error message.
Round 3: First Technical Interview
All those who had cleared group interview were called for first technical interview. They were taking minimum 2 hours for first interview. Some of us also faced interview for 3 or more hours.
Round 4: Second Technical Interview
All those who had cleared first technical interview were called for second interview. This was last round of interview. They took 1½ to 2 hours for this second interview.
I don't remember all the questions which were asked to me in both interviews. But still some of the questions which I can remember (almost 80 to 90% questions) are listed below.
In both interview they ask questions from C/C++, java, OS, Data structure and algorithms, Microprocessors and compiler constructions. With this, they also asked me to develop more than 6 to 8 programs. You can develop all programs in 5 to 7 minutes. But after writing program they asked to find its complexity and try to reduce the complexity and write the program again. In this way it took almost 15 to 20 min for each program. Some took less than 15 minutes also.
Some of the interview questions are as follows:
1. You are given a linked list and block size k. Reverse block of size k from list.
For example you are given linked list of 1000 nodes and block size is 5 then instead of reversing whole list, reverse first 5 elements, then 6 to 10 elements, then 11 to 15 elements, and so on...You have singly linked list and your algorithm which you will implement must be in space, that is no extra space is allowed.
2. You are given a tree and any 2 nodes of that tree. Find common parent of both nodes. Develop as much efficient program as you can.
3. In unix there is a command called “tail”. Implement that command in C.
4. Some questions about race condition (OS)
5. Questions related to semaphores.
6. Questions related to mutex. Applications of mutex. How to implement mutex in OS?
7. Questions about Critical region (OS).
8. How to ensure that race condition doesn't occur. Give your view as you are OS designer.
9. How to ensure that each process lock the critical region before they enter in it. As OS designer How will you force the process to do this?
10. Questions on IPC
11. Questions on Shared memory and Message passing mechanism.
12. Difference between system call and API call
13. How system call works? What happens when system call is invoked?
14. Different types of system calls?
15. Some questions from microprocessor. About Interrupts
16. Types of Interrupts. What happened when interrupt is called?
17. You are given a hard copy of a program which contains some errors. Your job is to find all types of errors from it. And discuss why is it an error. Write correct program for the same.
18. You are given a linked list and a number n. You also have a function to delete all nodes from that list which are at position which multiple of n in the list.
Example: if number is 3 then delete 3rd, 6th, 9th ,...nodes form the list. Develop a program that tests whether given function works properly or not. (In short they are asking me to develop general program for all test cases. By running that program all tests can be performed.)
19. Questions on java. Exception handling
20. Need of catch and finally block in java exception handling..
21. How will you create your own exception.. Explain with example.
22. Some questions on compiler construction. What is parser? What is input to the parser and what is output of parser? Difference between top down and bottom up parser.
23. F(1) = 1.
F(2n) = F (n) and F(2n+1) = F(n) + F(n+1).
Develop recursive program.
24. You are given a string which contains some special characters. You also have set of special characters. You are given other string (call it as pattern string). Your job is to write a program to replace each special characters in given string by pattern string. You are not allowed to create new resulting string. You need to allocate some new memory to given existing string but constraint is you can only allocate memory one time. Allocate memory exactly what you need not more not less.
25. Assume that your friend is writing a book . He gives you a file that contains that book. Your job is to develop an algorithm for indexing of that book. In every book there is one index at end which contains some words which are not there in normal vocabulary dictionary. It also contains page number for reference. You can use any data structure you want. You need to justify why you have used that data structure and also need to justify your logic.
26. Question from my B.E. final semester project. Asked me to explain whole project.
27. Question from everything written on my resume.
28. Question from my every project I did. They asked me to explain each project and then how to do some modification? That modification will be suggested by interviewer himself.
29. My experience in Teaching assistantship.
30. They had my written test answer sheet. They opened it and asked me to explain why I gave that output or why I implement that logic. How did I arrive to that solution which I had written in answer sheet.
31. In written test, for second question I had implement a program which was not much efficient. During interview they ask me to optimize my program. They also gave hint to optimize it.
32. During group interview, in second problem I was only able to discuss logic I was unable to develop program in given time limit. Interviewer knew this. She asked me to develop that program during interview.
33. Which is your favorite software tool? If you are allowed to add any feature in it which feature you will add?
34. Which is your favorite subject? Some questions from that subject.
35. Something about yourself , your hobbies, interests, strengths and weakness.
Saturday, March 13, 2010
Microsoft Interview Questions
• There are 2 sorted arrays A and B of size n each. Write an algorithm to find the median of the array obtained after merging the above 2 arrays(i.e. array of length 2n). Full points are given for the solution bearing efficiency O(log n). Partial points for the efficiency O(n).
• Given a string *Str of ASCII characters, write the pseudo code to remove the duplicate elements present in them. For example, if the given string is "Potato", then, the output has to be "Pota". Additional constraint is, the algorithm has to be in-place( no extra data structures allowed) . Extend your algorithm to remove duplicates in the string which consisted of UNICODE characters.
• Given that, there are 2 linked lists L1 and L2. The algorithm finds the intersection of the two linked lists. i.e' "L1 intersection L2 " ( similar to intersection of 2 sets ). Write all the possible test cases involved in the above given problem.
• Given a string *Str of ASCII characters, write the pseudo code to remove the duplicate elements present in them. For example, if the given string is "Potato", then, the output has to be "Pota". Additional constraint is, the algorithm has to be in-place( no extra data structures allowed) . Extend your algorithm to remove duplicates in the string which consisted of UNICODE characters.
• Given that, there are 2 linked lists L1 and L2. The algorithm finds the intersection of the two linked lists. i.e' "L1 intersection L2 " ( similar to intersection of 2 sets ). Write all the possible test cases involved in the above given problem.
Friday, March 12, 2010
TCS whole test paper 29 jan 2010
1)APTITUDE TEST:
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. ADAGE
A. advice B. proverb C. enlargement D. advantage
Ans: B
2. TO DISPEL
A. to dissipate B. to dissent C. to distort D. to disfigure
Ans: A
3. ERRATIC
A. unromantic B. unknown C. popular D. steady
Ans: B
4. TO MERIT
A. to embrace B. to devote C. to deserve D. to combine
Ans: C
5. RAPT
A. lively B. concealed C. engrossed D. prototype
Ans: B
6. TO HEAP
A. to pile B. to forbid C. to proceed D. to share
Ans: A
7. OVULATE
A. penury B. immunize C. fertilize D. reproduce
Ans: C
8. Motley
A. Uniform B. homogenous C. monochrome D. Assorted
Ans: D
9. mitigate
A. palliate B. Aggravate C. exacerbate D. None of these
Ans: A
10. Compunction
A. Regret B. scruple C. qualm D. None of these
Ans: D
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. Moribund
A. declining B. dilapidated C. waning D. thriving
Ans: D
12. Repudiate
A. reject B. disclaim C. acknowledge D. renounce,
Ans: C
13. Inundate
A. starve B. swamp C. deluge D. drown
Ans: A
14. Tenacity
A. obstinacy B. irresolution C. firmness D. resolve
Ans: B
15. Sobriety
A. flippancy B. temperance C. moderation D. soberness
Ans: A
16. Hidebound
A. narrow-minded B. conservative C. prejudiced D. broad-minded
Ans: D
17. Nebulous
A. vague B. imprecise C. precise D. hazy
Ans: C
18. Debacle
A. catastrophe B. fiasco C. success D. shambles,
Ans: C
19. Candid
A. frank B. guarded C. open D. truthful
Ans: B
20. Dangle
A. stick up B. sway C. suspend D. droop
Ans: A
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Educational planning should aim at meeting the educational needs of the entire population of all age groups. While the traditional structure of education as a three layer hierarchy from the primary stage to the university represents the core, we should not overlook the periphery which is equally important. Under modern conditions, workers need to rewind, or renew their enthusiasm, or strike out in a new direction, or improve their skills as much as any university professor. The retired and the aged have their needs as well. Educational planning, in their words, should take care of the needs of everyone.
Our structures of education have been built up on the assumption that there is a terminal point to education. This basic defect has become all the more harmful today, A UNESCO report entitled 'Learning to Be' prepared by Edger Faure and others in 1973 asserts that the education of children must prepare the future adult for various forms of self-learning. A viable education system of the future should consist of modules with different kinds of functions serving a diversity of constituents. And performance, not the period of study, should be the basis for credentials. The writing is already on the wall.
In view of the fact that the significance of a commitment of lifelong learning and lifetime education is being discussed only in recent years even in educationally advanced countries, The possibility of the idea becoming an integral part of educational thinking seems to be a far cry. For, to move in that direction means such more than some simple rearrangement of the present organisation of education. But a good begining can be made by developing open university programmes for older learners of different categories and introducing extension services in the conventional colleges and schools. Also these institutions should learn to co-operate with the numerous community organizations such as libraries, museums, municipal recreational programmes, health services etc.
21. What is the main thrust of the author ?
A) Traditional systems should be strengthened
B) Formal education is more important than non-formal
C) One should never cease to learn
D) It is impossible to meet the needs of everyone
E) There is no substitute for the extent system of education
Ans: C
22. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the author ?
A) To criticise the present educational system.
B) To strengthen the present educational practices
C) To support non-conventional educational organisations.
D) To present a pragmatic point of view
E) None of these
Ans : D
23.Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'meeting' as used in the passage.
A) Approaching B) Contacting C) introducing D) representing E) satisfying
Ans: E
24. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word 'integral' as used in the passage.
A) essential B) independent C) major D) minor E) unwilling
Ans: B
25. According to the author, what should be the basis for awarding credentials?
A) Duration of the course
B) Competence of the course teachers
C) Diversity of the topics covered
D) Real grasp of matter or skill
E) Participation in community activities
Ans: D
26. According to the author, educational plan should attempt to
A) train the people at the core
B) encourage conventional schools and colleges
C) decide a terminal point to education
D) overlook the people on the periphery
E) fulfil the educational needs of everyone.
Ans : A
Directions 27-32 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. .............you meet my son in the market, ask him to come home at once
A) Will B) While C) Should D) Would
Ans : C
28. Sanjay was sure..............getting a first class in the examination
A) at B) of C) on D) about
Ans : B
29. She seems offended .................my remarks
A) with B) for C) upon D) at
Ans : D
30. The mounting pressure was so overwhelming that he ultimately.................to her wish
A) agreed in B) cowed in C) gave in D) yielded in
Ans : C
31. He has no objection.................my proposal
A) to B) for C) in D) towards
Ans: A
32. Wash your hands.............water
A) from B) with C) by D) in
Ans: B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. Two Pencils 8 cents 5 Pencils cost
Ans: 20 cents
2. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10
Ans. (b)
3. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins. If all of them work
together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour a day should 40 men work to
complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs
Ans. (b)
5. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long. Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.m
Ans. (a)
6. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he
requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds
to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps
off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
7. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has
been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member?
Ans.40 years.
8. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.
9.Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a
king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.
10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number
of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How any cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991
11. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is
then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are
in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits.
What is the number?
Ans. 46
13. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it
take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours
14. What is the missing number in this series?
8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9
15. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture
is worth Rs.7 a kg , how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
16. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age.
Together the three of usare a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
17. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two
behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.
18. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he
eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.
19. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
20.Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent
should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %
21. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday
22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of
balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can
empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be
filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
25. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of
7 days reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate
of 825 grams per head.How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men
26. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm
27. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs. Find the speed of the boat in still
water and the speed of thewater current?
(a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these
Ans. (b)
28. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these
Ans. (c)
29. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
(a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6
Ans. (b)
30. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these
Ans. (a)
31.A train running at 72 kms per hour crosses a coconut tree standing by the side of the track in 7 seconds. The
length of the train is:
(A) 104 metres (B) 140 metres (C) 504 metres (D) 540 metres
Ans: B
32. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days and 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, the ratio
of daily work done by a man to that done by a boy is:
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
Ans: C
33. A cistern is filled by a tap in 3 1/2hours. Due to a leak in its bottom, it takes 12 hour longer to fill. If cistern is
full, how long will it take to leak to empty it?
(A) 7 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 14 hours (D) 28 hours
Ans: D
34. A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each whereas B can do the same work in 6 days of 7 hours each
How long will it take to complete the work together working 8 2/5 hours a day?
(A) 2 days (B) 3 days (C) 3 1/7 days (D) 4 2/5 days
Ans: B
35. A bus left Delhi for Ambala at 50 km/hr and turned over the same route at 40 km/hr. Thus it took 1 hour more
on the return trip. The distance between Delhi and Ambala is:
(A) 200 kms (B) 180 kms (C) 400 kms (D) None of these
Ans: A
36. A man purchased a bag of rice containing 70 kgs for Rs 175. He sold it at the rate of Rs 2.75 per kg.
Find the profit and loss per cent.
(A) 10% profit (B) 10% loss (C) 12.5% profit (D) 12.5% loss
Ans: A
37. A shopkeeper gives 3 consecutive discounts of 10%, 15% and 15% after which he sells his goods at a
percentage profit of 30.05% on the cost price. Find the value of the percentage profit that the shopkeeper
would have earned if he had given discounts of 10% and 15% only:
(A) 53% (B) 62.5% (C) 72.5% (D) 68.6%
Ans: A
38. A journey of 192 kms takes 2 hours less by a fast train than by a slow train. If the average speed of the slow
train is 16 kmph less than that of a fast train, what is the average speed of the fast train?
(A) 30 kmph (B) 48 kmph (C) 20 kmph (D) 25 kmph
Ans: B
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1-12: Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE : In the past helicopters were forced to ground or crash because of the formation of the ice on the rotors and engines. A new electronic device has been developed which can detect the water content in the atmosphere and warns the pilot if the temperature is below freezing temperature about the formation of the ice on the rotors and wings.
Answer questions 17-20 based on passage
1.The electronic device can avoid formation of the ice on the wings
Ans.False
2. There will be the malfunction of rotor & engine because of formation of ice
Ans.True
3. The helicopters were to be crashed or grounded
Ans.True
4. There is only one device that warn about the formation of ice
Ans.True
PASSAGE : Human existence is suspicious of arbitrary divide between concise and unconcise. The concise world invades shape activity of the unconcise, while many of great activity of humanity waking as whole or partially improved by dreams. Even it could be ignored that dreams precede exceptional such a dichotomy could not be drawn as the influence of dream on waking state would remain unclear. But as yet no company rebuilt exists to record the substitute of prenatal dreaming.
Answer questions 5- 8 based on passage
5. Sleepy can be creative state
Ans. True
6. It is difficult to tell whether a sleeper is dream or not
Ans. True
7. If we know what babies would dream about before they are born we could show that the concise and unconcise
mind influence on one another .
Ans. Can't say
8. It is untrue claim that concise and unconcise world never impinge one another
Ans.True
PASSAGE : Although invaders represent a threat to the conservation of flora and fauna, there are two special cases in which invasion have been deliberately brought about. One is the desire to control presents by natural predators, which may have to be brought in from other countries. The second is releasing organisms into the wild (or on to farms, from which they might escape) that are completely novel, because they have been genetically engineered. There is nothing intrinsically sinister about engineered organisms, but any novelty must be regarded as a potential invader.
Answer questions 9-12 based on passage
9.Pest control does not threat the conservation of flora and fauna.
Ans.True
10.Genetically engineered organisms must always be regarded as potentially dangerous.
Ans. False
11.Natural predators are work harmful than pests.
Ans. True
12.Genetically engineered organisms escaped from the farm, they will be pose a threat to wildlife.
Ans. True
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. ADAGE
A. advice B. proverb C. enlargement D. advantage
Ans: B
2. TO DISPEL
A. to dissipate B. to dissent C. to distort D. to disfigure
Ans: A
3. ERRATIC
A. unromantic B. unknown C. popular D. steady
Ans: B
4. TO MERIT
A. to embrace B. to devote C. to deserve D. to combine
Ans: C
5. RAPT
A. lively B. concealed C. engrossed D. prototype
Ans: B
6. TO HEAP
A. to pile B. to forbid C. to proceed D. to share
Ans: A
7. OVULATE
A. penury B. immunize C. fertilize D. reproduce
Ans: C
8. Motley
A. Uniform B. homogenous C. monochrome D. Assorted
Ans: D
9. mitigate
A. palliate B. Aggravate C. exacerbate D. None of these
Ans: A
10. Compunction
A. Regret B. scruple C. qualm D. None of these
Ans: D
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. Moribund
A. declining B. dilapidated C. waning D. thriving
Ans: D
12. Repudiate
A. reject B. disclaim C. acknowledge D. renounce,
Ans: C
13. Inundate
A. starve B. swamp C. deluge D. drown
Ans: A
14. Tenacity
A. obstinacy B. irresolution C. firmness D. resolve
Ans: B
15. Sobriety
A. flippancy B. temperance C. moderation D. soberness
Ans: A
16. Hidebound
A. narrow-minded B. conservative C. prejudiced D. broad-minded
Ans: D
17. Nebulous
A. vague B. imprecise C. precise D. hazy
Ans: C
18. Debacle
A. catastrophe B. fiasco C. success D. shambles,
Ans: C
19. Candid
A. frank B. guarded C. open D. truthful
Ans: B
20. Dangle
A. stick up B. sway C. suspend D. droop
Ans: A
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Educational planning should aim at meeting the educational needs of the entire population of all age groups. While the traditional structure of education as a three layer hierarchy from the primary stage to the university represents the core, we should not overlook the periphery which is equally important. Under modern conditions, workers need to rewind, or renew their enthusiasm, or strike out in a new direction, or improve their skills as much as any university professor. The retired and the aged have their needs as well. Educational planning, in their words, should take care of the needs of everyone.
Our structures of education have been built up on the assumption that there is a terminal point to education. This basic defect has become all the more harmful today, A UNESCO report entitled 'Learning to Be' prepared by Edger Faure and others in 1973 asserts that the education of children must prepare the future adult for various forms of self-learning. A viable education system of the future should consist of modules with different kinds of functions serving a diversity of constituents. And performance, not the period of study, should be the basis for credentials. The writing is already on the wall.
In view of the fact that the significance of a commitment of lifelong learning and lifetime education is being discussed only in recent years even in educationally advanced countries, The possibility of the idea becoming an integral part of educational thinking seems to be a far cry. For, to move in that direction means such more than some simple rearrangement of the present organisation of education. But a good begining can be made by developing open university programmes for older learners of different categories and introducing extension services in the conventional colleges and schools. Also these institutions should learn to co-operate with the numerous community organizations such as libraries, museums, municipal recreational programmes, health services etc.
21. What is the main thrust of the author ?
A) Traditional systems should be strengthened
B) Formal education is more important than non-formal
C) One should never cease to learn
D) It is impossible to meet the needs of everyone
E) There is no substitute for the extent system of education
Ans: C
22. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the author ?
A) To criticise the present educational system.
B) To strengthen the present educational practices
C) To support non-conventional educational organisations.
D) To present a pragmatic point of view
E) None of these
Ans : D
23.Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'meeting' as used in the passage.
A) Approaching B) Contacting C) introducing D) representing E) satisfying
Ans: E
24. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word 'integral' as used in the passage.
A) essential B) independent C) major D) minor E) unwilling
Ans: B
25. According to the author, what should be the basis for awarding credentials?
A) Duration of the course
B) Competence of the course teachers
C) Diversity of the topics covered
D) Real grasp of matter or skill
E) Participation in community activities
Ans: D
26. According to the author, educational plan should attempt to
A) train the people at the core
B) encourage conventional schools and colleges
C) decide a terminal point to education
D) overlook the people on the periphery
E) fulfil the educational needs of everyone.
Ans : A
Directions 27-32 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. .............you meet my son in the market, ask him to come home at once
A) Will B) While C) Should D) Would
Ans : C
28. Sanjay was sure..............getting a first class in the examination
A) at B) of C) on D) about
Ans : B
29. She seems offended .................my remarks
A) with B) for C) upon D) at
Ans : D
30. The mounting pressure was so overwhelming that he ultimately.................to her wish
A) agreed in B) cowed in C) gave in D) yielded in
Ans : C
31. He has no objection.................my proposal
A) to B) for C) in D) towards
Ans: A
32. Wash your hands.............water
A) from B) with C) by D) in
Ans: B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. Two Pencils 8 cents 5 Pencils cost
Ans: 20 cents
2. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10
Ans. (b)
3. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins. If all of them work
together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour a day should 40 men work to
complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs
Ans. (b)
5. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long. Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.m
Ans. (a)
6. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he
requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds
to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps
off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
7. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has
been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member?
Ans.40 years.
8. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.
9.Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a
king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.
10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number
of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How any cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991
11. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is
then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are
in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits.
What is the number?
Ans. 46
13. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it
take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours
14. What is the missing number in this series?
8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9
15. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture
is worth Rs.7 a kg , how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
16. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age.
Together the three of usare a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
17. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two
behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.
18. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he
eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.
19. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
20.Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent
should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %
21. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday
22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of
balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can
empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be
filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
25. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of
7 days reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate
of 825 grams per head.How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men
26. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm
27. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs. Find the speed of the boat in still
water and the speed of thewater current?
(a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these
Ans. (b)
28. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these
Ans. (c)
29. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
(a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6
Ans. (b)
30. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these
Ans. (a)
31.A train running at 72 kms per hour crosses a coconut tree standing by the side of the track in 7 seconds. The
length of the train is:
(A) 104 metres (B) 140 metres (C) 504 metres (D) 540 metres
Ans: B
32. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days and 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, the ratio
of daily work done by a man to that done by a boy is:
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
Ans: C
33. A cistern is filled by a tap in 3 1/2hours. Due to a leak in its bottom, it takes 12 hour longer to fill. If cistern is
full, how long will it take to leak to empty it?
(A) 7 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 14 hours (D) 28 hours
Ans: D
34. A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each whereas B can do the same work in 6 days of 7 hours each
How long will it take to complete the work together working 8 2/5 hours a day?
(A) 2 days (B) 3 days (C) 3 1/7 days (D) 4 2/5 days
Ans: B
35. A bus left Delhi for Ambala at 50 km/hr and turned over the same route at 40 km/hr. Thus it took 1 hour more
on the return trip. The distance between Delhi and Ambala is:
(A) 200 kms (B) 180 kms (C) 400 kms (D) None of these
Ans: A
36. A man purchased a bag of rice containing 70 kgs for Rs 175. He sold it at the rate of Rs 2.75 per kg.
Find the profit and loss per cent.
(A) 10% profit (B) 10% loss (C) 12.5% profit (D) 12.5% loss
Ans: A
37. A shopkeeper gives 3 consecutive discounts of 10%, 15% and 15% after which he sells his goods at a
percentage profit of 30.05% on the cost price. Find the value of the percentage profit that the shopkeeper
would have earned if he had given discounts of 10% and 15% only:
(A) 53% (B) 62.5% (C) 72.5% (D) 68.6%
Ans: A
38. A journey of 192 kms takes 2 hours less by a fast train than by a slow train. If the average speed of the slow
train is 16 kmph less than that of a fast train, what is the average speed of the fast train?
(A) 30 kmph (B) 48 kmph (C) 20 kmph (D) 25 kmph
Ans: B
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1-12: Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE : In the past helicopters were forced to ground or crash because of the formation of the ice on the rotors and engines. A new electronic device has been developed which can detect the water content in the atmosphere and warns the pilot if the temperature is below freezing temperature about the formation of the ice on the rotors and wings.
Answer questions 17-20 based on passage
1.The electronic device can avoid formation of the ice on the wings
Ans.False
2. There will be the malfunction of rotor & engine because of formation of ice
Ans.True
3. The helicopters were to be crashed or grounded
Ans.True
4. There is only one device that warn about the formation of ice
Ans.True
PASSAGE : Human existence is suspicious of arbitrary divide between concise and unconcise. The concise world invades shape activity of the unconcise, while many of great activity of humanity waking as whole or partially improved by dreams. Even it could be ignored that dreams precede exceptional such a dichotomy could not be drawn as the influence of dream on waking state would remain unclear. But as yet no company rebuilt exists to record the substitute of prenatal dreaming.
Answer questions 5- 8 based on passage
5. Sleepy can be creative state
Ans. True
6. It is difficult to tell whether a sleeper is dream or not
Ans. True
7. If we know what babies would dream about before they are born we could show that the concise and unconcise
mind influence on one another .
Ans. Can't say
8. It is untrue claim that concise and unconcise world never impinge one another
Ans.True
PASSAGE : Although invaders represent a threat to the conservation of flora and fauna, there are two special cases in which invasion have been deliberately brought about. One is the desire to control presents by natural predators, which may have to be brought in from other countries. The second is releasing organisms into the wild (or on to farms, from which they might escape) that are completely novel, because they have been genetically engineered. There is nothing intrinsically sinister about engineered organisms, but any novelty must be regarded as a potential invader.
Answer questions 9-12 based on passage
9.Pest control does not threat the conservation of flora and fauna.
Ans.True
10.Genetically engineered organisms must always be regarded as potentially dangerous.
Ans. False
11.Natural predators are work harmful than pests.
Ans. True
12.Genetically engineered organisms escaped from the farm, they will be pose a threat to wildlife.
Ans. True
3i INFO TECH Aptitude
Aptitude Questions
1.
If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10 Ans. (b)
2.
If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x? (a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6 Ans. (b)
3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these Ans. (a)
4. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these Ans. (a)
5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs Ans. (b)
6. . Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these Ans. (c)
7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these Ans. (b)
8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.mAns. (a)
9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
10.
The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ? Ans.40 years.
11.
Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
12.
ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE? Ans. AE = 10
13.
In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC? Ans. BC = 4 cm.
14.
Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace. Ans. 64/2210
15.
A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ? Ans. 991.
16. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
17.
In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
18. .Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.? Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.
19. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top? Ans.18 hours.
20. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12 Ans. 9
21. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture? Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
22.
A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo? Ans. 360 years old.
23.
One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they? Ans. Three
24.
A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day? Ans. Eight.
25. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
26.
The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose? Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
27.
Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9. Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
28.
Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed? Ans. 20 %.
29.
Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6. Ans. 10.
30.
Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?Ans. Friday.
31.
A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed? Ans. 1700 men.
32.
From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
33.
Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled? Ans. 167 minutes.
34.
A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
35. For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
1. . Which is the shortest route from B to C
(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C (b) The bridge (c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel (e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
Ans. (a)
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the
(a) tunnel (b) bridge (c) bridge or tunnel (d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway
Ans. (a)
3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?
(a) Whether his wife goes with him (b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls (e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge
Ans. (a)
4.
In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be: I. Traffic and road conditions II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of one's homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only Ans. (a)
36.
The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10, D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F,
1.
The fifth integer is
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F Ans. (a)
2.
A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans. (a)
3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16 Ans. (a)
4. A - F = ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a)
5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a)
6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans. (a)
37.
1. All G's are H's
2. All G's are J's or K's
3. All J's and K's are G's
4. All L's are K's
5. All N's are M's
6. No M's are G's
1.
If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true?
(a) All P's are J's (b) No P is a G (c) No P is an H (d) If any P is an H it is a G (e) If any P is a G it is a J Ans. (a)
2.
Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?
(a) No M's are H's (b) No M's that are not N's are H's (c) No H's are M's
(d) Some M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a)
3.
Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?
(a) All H's are G's (b) All H's that are not G's are M's (c) Some H's are both M's and G's (d) No M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a)
4.
The statement "No L's are J's" is
I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's"
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III Ans. (a)
38.
In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.
1.
When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true
(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.
Ans. (a)
2.
When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III (e) None of these Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:
(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.
Ans. (a)
4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.
(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.
Ans. (a)
39. In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before". If the president's statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I or II but not both (d) I, II and III
(e) None Ans. (a)
40. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don't function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldn't go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn't be a team
1. .If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.
A.ABDEH B.ABDGH C.ABEFH D.ABEGH Ans.B
2. If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 Ans.A
3. If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C
A.B B.D C.F D.G Ans.B
4. Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office
A.B B.D C.E D.G Ans.A
5. If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true
I.C cannot go II.A cannot go III.H must also go
A.I only B.II only C.I and II only D.I and III only Ans.D
41.
After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure
I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.
1.
.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.
A.BCD B.CDE C.ABE D.ABC Ans.B
2.
Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks
A.ABC;BDE B.ABD;ABE C.ADE;ABC D.BDE;ACD Ans.C
3. If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A II B III.C IV.E
A.I and II B.I and III only C.II and III only D.III and IV only
Ans.D
4. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee
I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice
A.I only B.II only C.III only D.Both I and II Ans.A
42.
A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayedWhen it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the 3 line but not both.When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed.
1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. D
2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. C
3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit
Ans. B
43. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden
1. A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I, II and III (D) I and II onlyAns. D
2. A male born into the brown group may have
(A) An uncle in either group (B) A brown daughter (C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group Ans. A
3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father's sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother's brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
Ans. B
4. . If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a widower.
Ans. D
5. I. All G's are H's
II. All G's are J's or K's
III All J's and K's are G's
IV All L's are K's
V All N's are M's
VI No M's are G's
44. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.
1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step (b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step (d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1 (b) step 2 (c) step 4 (d) step 5 (e) step 6 Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only (b) 3&5 only (c) 3&4 only (d) 4&5 only (e) 2&4 only Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following is false
i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.
(a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) both i and iii Ans: (c)
45. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.
i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D
1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans: (e)
2. . How many swimmers seperate A and F ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) cannot be determined Ans: (d)
3. The swimmer between C & E is
(a) none (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) A Ans: (a)
4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 Ans: (b)
46. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney
1. Which of the following is true ?
(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs
Ans: (c)
2. Which must be false ?
(a) House A has a yellow roof (b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney (d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof. Ans: (b)
3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.
(a) House E has a white chimney (b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney (d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney Ans: (a)
4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house
I. A red roof 7 a black chimney II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only (e) I&II&III Ans: (e)
47.
Find x+2y
(i). x+y=10 (ii). 2x+4y=20 Ans: (b
48.
Is angle BAC is a right angle
(i) AB=2BC (2) BC=1.5AC Ans: (e)
49.
Is x greater than y
(i) x=2k (ii) k=2y Ans: (e)
1.
If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10 Ans. (b)
2.
If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x? (a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6 Ans. (b)
3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these Ans. (a)
4. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these Ans. (a)
5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs Ans. (b)
6. . Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these Ans. (c)
7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these Ans. (b)
8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.mAns. (a)
9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
10.
The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ? Ans.40 years.
11.
Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
12.
ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE? Ans. AE = 10
13.
In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC? Ans. BC = 4 cm.
14.
Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace. Ans. 64/2210
15.
A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ? Ans. 991.
16. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
17.
In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
18. .Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.? Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.
19. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top? Ans.18 hours.
20. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12 Ans. 9
21. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture? Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
22.
A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo? Ans. 360 years old.
23.
One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they? Ans. Three
24.
A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day? Ans. Eight.
25. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
26.
The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose? Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
27.
Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9. Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
28.
Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed? Ans. 20 %.
29.
Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6. Ans. 10.
30.
Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?Ans. Friday.
31.
A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed? Ans. 1700 men.
32.
From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
33.
Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled? Ans. 167 minutes.
34.
A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
35. For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
1. . Which is the shortest route from B to C
(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C (b) The bridge (c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel (e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
Ans. (a)
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the
(a) tunnel (b) bridge (c) bridge or tunnel (d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway
Ans. (a)
3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?
(a) Whether his wife goes with him (b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls (e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge
Ans. (a)
4.
In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be: I. Traffic and road conditions II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of one's homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only Ans. (a)
36.
The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10, D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F,
1.
The fifth integer is
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F Ans. (a)
2.
A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans. (a)
3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16 Ans. (a)
4. A - F = ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a)
5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a)
6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans. (a)
37.
1. All G's are H's
2. All G's are J's or K's
3. All J's and K's are G's
4. All L's are K's
5. All N's are M's
6. No M's are G's
1.
If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true?
(a) All P's are J's (b) No P is a G (c) No P is an H (d) If any P is an H it is a G (e) If any P is a G it is a J Ans. (a)
2.
Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?
(a) No M's are H's (b) No M's that are not N's are H's (c) No H's are M's
(d) Some M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a)
3.
Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?
(a) All H's are G's (b) All H's that are not G's are M's (c) Some H's are both M's and G's (d) No M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a)
4.
The statement "No L's are J's" is
I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's"
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III Ans. (a)
38.
In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.
1.
When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true
(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.
Ans. (a)
2.
When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III (e) None of these Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:
(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.
Ans. (a)
4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.
(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.
Ans. (a)
39. In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before". If the president's statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I or II but not both (d) I, II and III
(e) None Ans. (a)
40. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don't function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldn't go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn't be a team
1. .If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.
A.ABDEH B.ABDGH C.ABEFH D.ABEGH Ans.B
2. If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 Ans.A
3. If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C
A.B B.D C.F D.G Ans.B
4. Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office
A.B B.D C.E D.G Ans.A
5. If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true
I.C cannot go II.A cannot go III.H must also go
A.I only B.II only C.I and II only D.I and III only Ans.D
41.
After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure
I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.
1.
.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.
A.BCD B.CDE C.ABE D.ABC Ans.B
2.
Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks
A.ABC;BDE B.ABD;ABE C.ADE;ABC D.BDE;ACD Ans.C
3. If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A II B III.C IV.E
A.I and II B.I and III only C.II and III only D.III and IV only
Ans.D
4. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee
I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice
A.I only B.II only C.III only D.Both I and II Ans.A
42.
A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayedWhen it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the 3 line but not both.When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed.
1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. D
2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. C
3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit
Ans. B
43. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden
1. A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I, II and III (D) I and II onlyAns. D
2. A male born into the brown group may have
(A) An uncle in either group (B) A brown daughter (C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group Ans. A
3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father's sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother's brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
Ans. B
4. . If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a widower.
Ans. D
5. I. All G's are H's
II. All G's are J's or K's
III All J's and K's are G's
IV All L's are K's
V All N's are M's
VI No M's are G's
44. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.
1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step (b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step (d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1 (b) step 2 (c) step 4 (d) step 5 (e) step 6 Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only (b) 3&5 only (c) 3&4 only (d) 4&5 only (e) 2&4 only Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following is false
i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.
(a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) both i and iii Ans: (c)
45. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.
i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D
1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans: (e)
2. . How many swimmers seperate A and F ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) cannot be determined Ans: (d)
3. The swimmer between C & E is
(a) none (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) A Ans: (a)
4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 Ans: (b)
46. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney
1. Which of the following is true ?
(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs
Ans: (c)
2. Which must be false ?
(a) House A has a yellow roof (b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney (d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof. Ans: (b)
3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.
(a) House E has a white chimney (b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney (d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney Ans: (a)
4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house
I. A red roof 7 a black chimney II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only (e) I&II&III Ans: (e)
47.
Find x+2y
(i). x+y=10 (ii). 2x+4y=20 Ans: (b
48.
Is angle BAC is a right angle
(i) AB=2BC (2) BC=1.5AC Ans: (e)
49.
Is x greater than y
(i) x=2k (ii) k=2y Ans: (e)
Group Discussions Tips
1. Always be the initiator and concluder of the GD then being a participant.
2. But if you are participant always try to be the most vital/key participant.
3. put points firmly and always try to get others support too.
4. if you find that the discussion as going offtrack then never loose an opportunity to bring it back to stream this is the best point to score max.
5. try to keep latest information on the topic.
6. be very polite , people may try to provoke you to to get more points but try to keep cool.
7. most important don't wait for your turn to speak when discussion is on. interrupt politely if you want to put forward your points.
8. last but not the least keep an eye on the time given for discussion. score points by wrapping up the discussion if you feel that the discussion is heating but the time is going to be over.
9. during conclusion, do end with the conclusion note. that shows your leadership quality.
Best scoring points are:
1. initiation of discussion,
2.always keeping/trying to keep discussion on track
3. conclusion on time
4. your capability to keep your cool and listen as well as putting your points.
2. But if you are participant always try to be the most vital/key participant.
3. put points firmly and always try to get others support too.
4. if you find that the discussion as going offtrack then never loose an opportunity to bring it back to stream this is the best point to score max.
5. try to keep latest information on the topic.
6. be very polite , people may try to provoke you to to get more points but try to keep cool.
7. most important don't wait for your turn to speak when discussion is on. interrupt politely if you want to put forward your points.
8. last but not the least keep an eye on the time given for discussion. score points by wrapping up the discussion if you feel that the discussion is heating but the time is going to be over.
9. during conclusion, do end with the conclusion note. that shows your leadership quality.
Best scoring points are:
1. initiation of discussion,
2.always keeping/trying to keep discussion on track
3. conclusion on time
4. your capability to keep your cool and listen as well as putting your points.
Sunday, March 7, 2010
TCS Whole test paper on jan 2010
1)APTITUDE TEST:
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. Diligence
A. Laziness B. carelessness C. negligence D. meticulousness
Ans: D
2. Illustrious
A. unimportant B. glorious C. shameful D. None of these
Ans: B
3. prolific
A. Unproductive B. scarce C. abundant D. None of these
Ans: C
4. Relinquish
A. Vanquish B. repudiate C. retain, D. None of these
Ans: B
5. ABODE
A. clay B. obstacle C. dwelling D. bind
Ans: C
6. BEHEST
A. behavior B. hold down C. relieve D. condemn
Ans: B
7. MORTIFY
A. make a cavity B. displease C. humiliate D. relapse
Ans: C
8. LETHARGY
A. reminiscence B. category C. fallacy D. stupor
Ans: D
9. INCENTIVE
A. provocation B. amplitude d. reflex e. escutcheon
Ans: A
10. CAJOLE
a. mollify b. motivate c. profound d. coax
Ans: D
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. admonish
A. Reprove B. reprimand C. Approve D. rebuke
Ans: C
12. Circumspect
A. Reckless B. Cautious C. prudent D. guarded
Ans: A
13. Impetus
A. Momentum B. thrust C. motivation D. Inertia
Ans: D
14. Latent
A. Dormant B. Overt C. embryonic D. suppressed
Ans: B
15. Manifestation
A. demonstration B. expression C. obscurity D. symptom
Ans: C
16. Solicit
A. Importune B. implore C. crave D. Grant
Ans: D
17. Vehement
A. Fervent B. passionate C. Apathetic D. None of these
Ans: C
18. Caprice
A. Whim B. impulse C. quirk D. None of these
Ans: D
19. Dwindle
A. extend B. fall C. fall off D. drop
Ans: A
20. Covet
A. aspire to B. abjure C. begrudge D. crave
Ans: B
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
A leading Indian industrialist in a recent article on ways to strengthen India's economy has drawn attention to the problems of inflation and industrial sickness among other things. One of the main reasons for industrial sickness in our country has been the fact that business and industrial managers, have not been able to look beyond the immediate future. They have been too preoccupied with their attempts to report favorable results for the current year higher profits and larger dividends to the share holders. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years. Investments have been inadequate for new plants and towards diversification and expansions. Modernisation and asset creation has seriously lagged behind. In business, growth is needed for survival; one has to grow if one does not want to be wiped out This is particularly true today with liberalisation of imports and increasing competition. More over, growth and higher productivity create employment and higher employment creates larger markets both for industrial and consumer products. It was Hentry Ford who brought home the need for the creation of larger and a more stable middle class, that is, a larger number of people who can afford more and more of goods and services. Even after forty years of independence our industrialists have not been able to shed the petty shopkeeper's mentality and our highly educated management has tagged along merrily and without concern.
21. Which of the following short comings of Indian industrialists has been highlighted by the author ?
A) The invest unreasonable high amount on diversification and expansion.
B) They are more concerned for immediate net gains than for developmental activities
C) They are reluctant to maintain the shopkeeper mentality
D) They are less concerned for payment of dividends to shareholders
E) None of the above
Ans: B
22. The leading industrialist attributes industrial sickness mainly to
A) lacunae in five-year plans
B) preoccupations of managers with matters unrelated to business
C) higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders
D) lack of foresight among managers
E) inflation and other economic problems
Ans: D
23.According to the passage, growth and increasing productivity lead to
A) imposition of restrictions on imports
B) employment and thus provide an outlet to industrial and consumer products
C) encouragement to export of excess consumer goods
D) disproportionate surplus of commodities
E) None of the above
Ans: B
24. Why did Hentry Ford stress the need for a more stable middle class ?
A) They are mostly service oriented
B) They do not have shopkeeper mentality
C) They can afford to buy more and more expensive goods
D) They are most unstable
E) None of these
Ans:. C
25. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five year's implies
A) Planning should not be for a period of less than five years
B) The planning process is very time consuming
C) The planners are not inclined to think of future
D) Planning should take care of all probable ups and downs in the next five-year period
E) Five-year period is too short for successful implementation of plans.
Ans: E
26. According to the passage, the net gains pursued by managers are at the cost of
A) Diversification, modernisation and asset creation
B) Availability of markets for industrial and consumer products
C) Inflation and industrial sickness
D) Liberalisation of imports and increasing competition
E) Higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders
Ans: A
Directions 27-32: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. She had just................down when the telephone rang
A) laid B) lain C) lay
Ans : B
28. Thinking that the other candidate was more deserving for the post, I.............. in his favour
A) stood down B) stood out C) stood over D) stood off
Ans : A
29. This building comprises...............sixty rooms
A) off B) to C) with D) of
Ans : D
30. She always runs short..............money
A) of B) by C) in D) to
Ans : A
31. Sunita decided to set..............some time every day for prayers
A) up B) in C) on D) aside
Ans : D
32. The Government agreed to pay compensation.................damaged crops, land and cattle.
A) of B) for C) to D) through
Ans : B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 5,__ , 19 , 37, 75
Ans: 9
2. Find the fourth row, having the bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer, and express the answer in its
decimal value ?
A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
(AU(B-C)) ?
Ans. 29
3. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
Ans: 240
4. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a
plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is
Rs. 15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/- per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans. Rs. 22,500
5. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the
first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
Ans: 3212
6. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are
interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Ans:I
7.What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
Ans : 251
8. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N.
If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans: 0.5%
9. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it
in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
10. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
Ans: 5
11. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
Ans: QCCKJ
12. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power
plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is
Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans : 1000
13. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much
temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
Ans: At 9pm 7.5 more
14. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a
program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20
milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
Ans: 30
15. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
Ans: PEASE
16. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What
will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
Ans: 20%
17. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in
northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination
when the flight reaches there?
Ans: 7 am
18. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours
required for B to copy 26 papers?
Ans: 13
19. A 2D array is declared as A[9,7] and each element requires 2 byte. If A [1,1] is stored in 3000. Find the
memory of A[8,5] ?
Ans: 3106
20. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how
many days, A alone can complete the work?
Ans: 10.5
21. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the
same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Ans:15 mph
22.A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after 30 minutes staying at destination, it returned back to the bus
stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. In return journey bus
travels with 50% fast speed. At what time it returns to the bus stand?
Ans: 11.00am.
23. A restaurant bill is made up of the following: $12.50 for starters, $28.55 for main courses and $8.95 for deserts,
plus a 15% service charge. How much is the bill?
A
B
C
D
E
$56.50
$57.50
$57.00
$59.50
$60.50
Ans: B
24. A team of eight lumberjacks cut an average of 15,000 cubic feet of timber in a week. How many cubic feet will
four lumberjacks cut in four weeks?
A
B
C
D
E
30,000
25,000
32,000
16,000
28,000
Ans: A
25. A discount of 15% is offered on an item which previously cost $1.80. What is the discounted price?
Ans: A
26. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Ans: a,c
27. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance ) find units.
Ans. mass
28. In some game 139 members have participated every time one fellow will get bye what is the number of matches
to choose the champion to be held?
Ans: 138
29. one fast typist type some matter in 2hr and another slow typist type the same matter in 3hr. if both do combine in
how much time they will finish ?
Ans: 1hr 12min
30. In 8*8 chess board what is the total number of squares ?
Ans:204
31.A person, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average speed of
forward journey is 40 m/h. Due to traffic in Sundays, the return journey average speed is 30 m/h. How far he
can select a picnic spot?
Ans: 120 miles
30.A & B are playing a game .There are 8 oranges in a row on the table. one Player can take 1-4 oranges in a pick
(a maximum of 4),one who picks the last orange wins the game. 'A' plays first How many oranges should he
pick first time in order to win the game.
Ans: 3
31. A salesperson multiplied a number and get the answer 3, instead of that number divided by 3. what is the
answer he actually has to get?
Ans. is 1/3.
32. In a mixture, R is 2 parts, S is 1 part. In aoder to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much R is to be added?
Ans: one part of R
33. With 4/5 full tank vehicle travels 12 miles, with 1/3 full tank how much distance travels
Ans: 5 miles
34. Two trees are there. one grows at 3/5 of the other in 4 years, total growth of trees is 8 ft. what growth will
smaller tree will have in 2 years
Ans: < 2 ft.
35.Last year pandit was thrice his sister's age. Next year he is only twice her age. After 5 years what is pandit's age.
a) 2 b) 12 c) 11 d) 14
Ans : b
36.Box of 150 packets consists of 1kg packets and 2kg packets. Total weight of box is 264kg. How many 2kg
packets are there
a) 96 b) 67 c) 100 d) 114
Ans :d
37. Satish earns 240 weekly.12% of big amount + earning weekly = 540.What is the big amount?
a) 3200 b) 3600 c) 2500 d) 1000
Ans: c
38. Julia is twice older than qurban. If Julia was 4 years younger, qurban was 3 years older their diff. between their
ages is 12 years. What is the sum of their ages?
a) 67 b) 57 c) 36 d) none
Ans : b
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1- 12 : Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE : Alphine tunnels are closed tunnels. In the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. Even in case of a fire accident it is possible to shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the live fire can be detected and extinguished with in the duration of 30 min.
Answer questions 1-3 based on passage
1. No accident can occur in the closed tunnels
Ans. True
2. Fire is allowed to live for 30 min
Ans. False
3 All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters.
Ans. True
PASSAGE : In the survey conducted in mumbai out of 63 newly married house wives not a single house wife felt that the husbands should take equal part in the household work as they felt they loose their power over their husbands. Inspite of their careers they opt to do the kitchen work themselves after coming back to home. the wives get half as much leisure time as the husbands get at the week ends.
Answer questions 4-6 based on passage
4.Housewives want the husbands to take part equally in the household
Ans. False
5. Wives have half as much leisure time as the husbands have
Ans. False
6. 39% of the men will work equally in the house in cleaning and washing.
Ans. False
PASSAGE : In the totalitarian days, the words have very much devalued. In the present day, they are becoming domestic that is the words will be much more devalued. In that days, the words will be very much effected in political area. but at present, the words came very cheap .We can say they come free at cost.
Answer questions 7-9 based on passage .
7. Totalitarian society words are devalued.
Ans. False
8. Totalitarians will have to come much about words
Ans. True
9. The art totalitarian society the words are used for the political speeches.
Ans. False
PASSAGE : In Confucius days the technology development was less and it took weeks to communicate a message. wherein we can send it through satellite with in no time. even with this fast developments it has become difficult to understand each other.
Answer questions 10-12 based on passage .
10. people were not intelligent during Confucius days
Ans. False
11. transport facilities are very much improved in now-a-days
Ans. True
12. even with the fast developments of the technology we cannot live happily.
Ans. can't say
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. Diligence
A. Laziness B. carelessness C. negligence D. meticulousness
Ans: D
2. Illustrious
A. unimportant B. glorious C. shameful D. None of these
Ans: B
3. prolific
A. Unproductive B. scarce C. abundant D. None of these
Ans: C
4. Relinquish
A. Vanquish B. repudiate C. retain, D. None of these
Ans: B
5. ABODE
A. clay B. obstacle C. dwelling D. bind
Ans: C
6. BEHEST
A. behavior B. hold down C. relieve D. condemn
Ans: B
7. MORTIFY
A. make a cavity B. displease C. humiliate D. relapse
Ans: C
8. LETHARGY
A. reminiscence B. category C. fallacy D. stupor
Ans: D
9. INCENTIVE
A. provocation B. amplitude d. reflex e. escutcheon
Ans: A
10. CAJOLE
a. mollify b. motivate c. profound d. coax
Ans: D
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. admonish
A. Reprove B. reprimand C. Approve D. rebuke
Ans: C
12. Circumspect
A. Reckless B. Cautious C. prudent D. guarded
Ans: A
13. Impetus
A. Momentum B. thrust C. motivation D. Inertia
Ans: D
14. Latent
A. Dormant B. Overt C. embryonic D. suppressed
Ans: B
15. Manifestation
A. demonstration B. expression C. obscurity D. symptom
Ans: C
16. Solicit
A. Importune B. implore C. crave D. Grant
Ans: D
17. Vehement
A. Fervent B. passionate C. Apathetic D. None of these
Ans: C
18. Caprice
A. Whim B. impulse C. quirk D. None of these
Ans: D
19. Dwindle
A. extend B. fall C. fall off D. drop
Ans: A
20. Covet
A. aspire to B. abjure C. begrudge D. crave
Ans: B
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
A leading Indian industrialist in a recent article on ways to strengthen India's economy has drawn attention to the problems of inflation and industrial sickness among other things. One of the main reasons for industrial sickness in our country has been the fact that business and industrial managers, have not been able to look beyond the immediate future. They have been too preoccupied with their attempts to report favorable results for the current year higher profits and larger dividends to the share holders. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years. Investments have been inadequate for new plants and towards diversification and expansions. Modernisation and asset creation has seriously lagged behind. In business, growth is needed for survival; one has to grow if one does not want to be wiped out This is particularly true today with liberalisation of imports and increasing competition. More over, growth and higher productivity create employment and higher employment creates larger markets both for industrial and consumer products. It was Hentry Ford who brought home the need for the creation of larger and a more stable middle class, that is, a larger number of people who can afford more and more of goods and services. Even after forty years of independence our industrialists have not been able to shed the petty shopkeeper's mentality and our highly educated management has tagged along merrily and without concern.
21. Which of the following short comings of Indian industrialists has been highlighted by the author ?
A) The invest unreasonable high amount on diversification and expansion.
B) They are more concerned for immediate net gains than for developmental activities
C) They are reluctant to maintain the shopkeeper mentality
D) They are less concerned for payment of dividends to shareholders
E) None of the above
Ans: B
22. The leading industrialist attributes industrial sickness mainly to
A) lacunae in five-year plans
B) preoccupations of managers with matters unrelated to business
C) higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders
D) lack of foresight among managers
E) inflation and other economic problems
Ans: D
23.According to the passage, growth and increasing productivity lead to
A) imposition of restrictions on imports
B) employment and thus provide an outlet to industrial and consumer products
C) encouragement to export of excess consumer goods
D) disproportionate surplus of commodities
E) None of the above
Ans: B
24. Why did Hentry Ford stress the need for a more stable middle class ?
A) They are mostly service oriented
B) They do not have shopkeeper mentality
C) They can afford to buy more and more expensive goods
D) They are most unstable
E) None of these
Ans:. C
25. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five year's implies
A) Planning should not be for a period of less than five years
B) The planning process is very time consuming
C) The planners are not inclined to think of future
D) Planning should take care of all probable ups and downs in the next five-year period
E) Five-year period is too short for successful implementation of plans.
Ans: E
26. According to the passage, the net gains pursued by managers are at the cost of
A) Diversification, modernisation and asset creation
B) Availability of markets for industrial and consumer products
C) Inflation and industrial sickness
D) Liberalisation of imports and increasing competition
E) Higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders
Ans: A
Directions 27-32: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. She had just................down when the telephone rang
A) laid B) lain C) lay
Ans : B
28. Thinking that the other candidate was more deserving for the post, I.............. in his favour
A) stood down B) stood out C) stood over D) stood off
Ans : A
29. This building comprises...............sixty rooms
A) off B) to C) with D) of
Ans : D
30. She always runs short..............money
A) of B) by C) in D) to
Ans : A
31. Sunita decided to set..............some time every day for prayers
A) up B) in C) on D) aside
Ans : D
32. The Government agreed to pay compensation.................damaged crops, land and cattle.
A) of B) for C) to D) through
Ans : B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 5,__ , 19 , 37, 75
Ans: 9
2. Find the fourth row, having the bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer, and express the answer in its
decimal value ?
A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
(AU(B-C)) ?
Ans. 29
3. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
Ans: 240
4. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a
plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is
Rs. 15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/- per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans. Rs. 22,500
5. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the
first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
Ans: 3212
6. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are
interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Ans:I
7.What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
Ans : 251
8. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N.
If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans: 0.5%
9. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it
in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
10. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
Ans: 5
11. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
Ans: QCCKJ
12. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power
plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is
Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans : 1000
13. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much
temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
Ans: At 9pm 7.5 more
14. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a
program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20
milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
Ans: 30
15. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
Ans: PEASE
16. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What
will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
Ans: 20%
17. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in
northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination
when the flight reaches there?
Ans: 7 am
18. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours
required for B to copy 26 papers?
Ans: 13
19. A 2D array is declared as A[9,7] and each element requires 2 byte. If A [1,1] is stored in 3000. Find the
memory of A[8,5] ?
Ans: 3106
20. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how
many days, A alone can complete the work?
Ans: 10.5
21. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the
same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Ans:15 mph
22.A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after 30 minutes staying at destination, it returned back to the bus
stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. In return journey bus
travels with 50% fast speed. At what time it returns to the bus stand?
Ans: 11.00am.
23. A restaurant bill is made up of the following: $12.50 for starters, $28.55 for main courses and $8.95 for deserts,
plus a 15% service charge. How much is the bill?
A
B
C
D
E
$56.50
$57.50
$57.00
$59.50
$60.50
Ans: B
24. A team of eight lumberjacks cut an average of 15,000 cubic feet of timber in a week. How many cubic feet will
four lumberjacks cut in four weeks?
A
B
C
D
E
30,000
25,000
32,000
16,000
28,000
Ans: A
25. A discount of 15% is offered on an item which previously cost $1.80. What is the discounted price?
Ans: A
26. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Ans: a,c
27. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance ) find units.
Ans. mass
28. In some game 139 members have participated every time one fellow will get bye what is the number of matches
to choose the champion to be held?
Ans: 138
29. one fast typist type some matter in 2hr and another slow typist type the same matter in 3hr. if both do combine in
how much time they will finish ?
Ans: 1hr 12min
30. In 8*8 chess board what is the total number of squares ?
Ans:204
31.A person, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average speed of
forward journey is 40 m/h. Due to traffic in Sundays, the return journey average speed is 30 m/h. How far he
can select a picnic spot?
Ans: 120 miles
30.A & B are playing a game .There are 8 oranges in a row on the table. one Player can take 1-4 oranges in a pick
(a maximum of 4),one who picks the last orange wins the game. 'A' plays first How many oranges should he
pick first time in order to win the game.
Ans: 3
31. A salesperson multiplied a number and get the answer 3, instead of that number divided by 3. what is the
answer he actually has to get?
Ans. is 1/3.
32. In a mixture, R is 2 parts, S is 1 part. In aoder to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much R is to be added?
Ans: one part of R
33. With 4/5 full tank vehicle travels 12 miles, with 1/3 full tank how much distance travels
Ans: 5 miles
34. Two trees are there. one grows at 3/5 of the other in 4 years, total growth of trees is 8 ft. what growth will
smaller tree will have in 2 years
Ans: < 2 ft.
35.Last year pandit was thrice his sister's age. Next year he is only twice her age. After 5 years what is pandit's age.
a) 2 b) 12 c) 11 d) 14
Ans : b
36.Box of 150 packets consists of 1kg packets and 2kg packets. Total weight of box is 264kg. How many 2kg
packets are there
a) 96 b) 67 c) 100 d) 114
Ans :d
37. Satish earns 240 weekly.12% of big amount + earning weekly = 540.What is the big amount?
a) 3200 b) 3600 c) 2500 d) 1000
Ans: c
38. Julia is twice older than qurban. If Julia was 4 years younger, qurban was 3 years older their diff. between their
ages is 12 years. What is the sum of their ages?
a) 67 b) 57 c) 36 d) none
Ans : b
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1- 12 : Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE : Alphine tunnels are closed tunnels. In the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. Even in case of a fire accident it is possible to shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the live fire can be detected and extinguished with in the duration of 30 min.
Answer questions 1-3 based on passage
1. No accident can occur in the closed tunnels
Ans. True
2. Fire is allowed to live for 30 min
Ans. False
3 All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters.
Ans. True
PASSAGE : In the survey conducted in mumbai out of 63 newly married house wives not a single house wife felt that the husbands should take equal part in the household work as they felt they loose their power over their husbands. Inspite of their careers they opt to do the kitchen work themselves after coming back to home. the wives get half as much leisure time as the husbands get at the week ends.
Answer questions 4-6 based on passage
4.Housewives want the husbands to take part equally in the household
Ans. False
5. Wives have half as much leisure time as the husbands have
Ans. False
6. 39% of the men will work equally in the house in cleaning and washing.
Ans. False
PASSAGE : In the totalitarian days, the words have very much devalued. In the present day, they are becoming domestic that is the words will be much more devalued. In that days, the words will be very much effected in political area. but at present, the words came very cheap .We can say they come free at cost.
Answer questions 7-9 based on passage .
7. Totalitarian society words are devalued.
Ans. False
8. Totalitarians will have to come much about words
Ans. True
9. The art totalitarian society the words are used for the political speeches.
Ans. False
PASSAGE : In Confucius days the technology development was less and it took weeks to communicate a message. wherein we can send it through satellite with in no time. even with this fast developments it has become difficult to understand each other.
Answer questions 10-12 based on passage .
10. people were not intelligent during Confucius days
Ans. False
11. transport facilities are very much improved in now-a-days
Ans. True
12. even with the fast developments of the technology we cannot live happily.
Ans. can't say
TCS Whole test paper
1)APTITUDE TEST:
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. POTENTIAL
a. latent b. hysterical c. conventional d. symmetrical
Ans: a
2. EXTRICATE
a. terminate b. isolate c. liberate d. simplify
Ans: c
3. DISPARITY
a. inequality b. impartiality c. unfairness d. twist
Ans: a
4. TO CONFISCATE
a. to harass b. to repulse c. to console d. to appropriate
Ans: d
5. PIOUS
a. historic b. devout c. multiple d. fortunate
Ans: b
6. CARGO
a. cabbage b. camel c. lance d. freight
Ans: d
7. OVATION
a. oration b. gesture c. emulation d. applause
Ans: d
8. Candid
A. intriguing B. sly C. frank D. cunning
Ans: C
9. Murky
A. overcast B. dazzling C. Clear D. fulgurant
Ans: A
10. Guile
A. Openness B. slyness C. fair-dealing D. ingenuousness
Ans: B
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. Stern
A. Lenient B. Crabby C. Tenant D. Unreasonable
Ans: A
12.spry
A. agile B. young C. adult D. doddering
Ans: D
14. spurn
A. weave B. turn C. sew D. embrace
Ans: D
15. slothful
A. summit B. animal C. lazy D. industrious
Ans: D
16. sluggish
A. wasteful B. brisk C. baseball D. chilly
Ans: B
17.scrawny
A. bane B. skinny C. obese D. lean
Ans: C
18. tolerance
A. intolerance B. forbearance C. lenience D. acceptance
Ans: A
19. susceptible
A. sensitive B. swayable C. amenable D. impervious
Ans: D
20. stingy
A. miserly B. generous C. parsimonious D. sparing
Ans: B
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic mis-information can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the U.S.A, U.K and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.
21. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the phrase 'holding out' as used in the passage
A) catching B) expounding C) sustaining D) restraining E) controlling
Ans: B
22. According to the passage, the question of abortion is
A) ignored B) hotly debated C) unanswered D) left to the scientists to decide E) already settled
Ans: B
23. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word 'obliterate' as used in the passage.
A) wipe off B) eradicate C) give birth to D) wipe out E) very literate
Ans: B
24. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to the word 'charged' as used in the passage
A) calm B) disturbed C) discharged D) settled E) peaceful
Ans: D
25. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement.
A) Possibility of abuse
B) It is confronted by ethical problems
C) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells
D) acquired ability to detect genetic disorders in unborn babies.
E) acquired ability to manipulate tissue cells
Ans: C
26. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word 'feat' as used in the passage
A) process B) focus C) fact D) possibility E) goal
Ans: E
Directions 27-32 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. He preferred cricket.....................any other sport.
A) against B) to C) over D) than
Ans: B
28. There is a disturbing nexus.....................politics and sports in India
A) between B) with C) among D) by
Ans: A
29.Don't loiter.................the street
A) in B) about C) on D) into
Ans: B
30. The terms given to you are not acceptable ..............me
A) for B) by C) with D) to
Ans: D
31. You have played a great role, for ..................your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.
A) after B) despite C) unless D) although E) without
Ans: E
32. Fate smiled..............him in all his ventures
A) upon B) on C) at D) over
Ans: B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got
increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is
A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 73
Ans: C
2. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be
43 kg, then the weight of B is
A) 17 kg B) 20 kg C) 26 kg D) 31 kg
Ans: D
3. The average monthly salary of 20 employees in an organisation is Rs. 1500. If the manager's salary is added,
then the average salary increases by Rs. 100. What is the manager's salary?
A) Rs.2000 R) Rs.2400 C) Rs. 3600 D) Rs.4800
Ans: C
4. The average of five consecutive numbers in n. If the next two numbers are also included, the average will :
A) remain the same B) increase by 1 C) increase by 1.4 D) increase by 2
Ans: B
5. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid.
If the total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got, was
A) 2700 B) 2900 C) 3000 D) 3100
Ans: A
6. Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 pe week by their employer. If X is paid 120 percent of the sum
paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week
A) Rs. 200 B) Rs. 250 C) Rs.300 C) Rs. None of these
Ans : B
7. A student secures 90%, 60% and 54% marks in test papers with 100, 150 and 200 respectively as maximum
marks. The percentage of his aggregate is
A) 64 B) 68 C) 70 D) None of these
Ans: A
8. A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit
will be
A) 40 B) 100 C) 120 D) 140
Ans: D
9. Profit earned by selling an article for Ra. 1060 is 20% more than the loss incurred by selling the article for
Rs. 950. At what price should be article be sold to earn 20% profit.?
A) 980 B) 1080 C) 1800 D) None of these
Ans: D
10. The ages of A and B are in the ration of 3:1. Fifteen years hence, the ratio will be 2:1 Their present ages are
A) 30 years, 10 years B) 45 years, 15 years C) 21 years, 7 years D) 60 years, 20 years
Ans: B
11. The electricity bill of a certain establishment is partly fixed and partly varies as the number of units of electricity
consumed. When in a certain month 540 units are consumed, the bill is Rs. 1800. In another month 620 units
are consumed and the bill is Rs. 2040. In yet another month 500 units are consumed. The bill for that month
would be
A) Rs.1560 B) Rs. 1680 C) Rs. 1840 D) Rs. 1950
Ans: B
12. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7: 2 and 7: 11 respectively.
If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be
A) 5:7 B) 5:9 C) 7:5 D) 9:5
Ans: C
13. Three men, four women and six children can complete a work in seven days. A women does double the work
a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this work in
7 days
A) 7 B) 8 C) 12 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Ans: A
14. A man, a women and a boy can complete a job in 3, 4 and 12 days respectively. How many boys must assist
1 man and 1 women to complete the job in 1/4 of a day.
A) 1 B) 4 C) 19 D) 41
Ans: D
15. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 12 days,
the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be :
A) 4 days B) 5 days C) 6 days D) 7 days
Ans: A
16. With a uniform speed a car covers the distance in 8 hours. Had the speed been increased by 4 km/hr, the same
distance could have been covered in 7/1/2 hours. What is the distance covered?
A) 420 km B) 480 km C) 640 km D) Cannot determined E) None of these
Ans: B
17. In a flight of 600 km, a aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was
reduced by 200 km/ hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The duration of the flight is :
A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours
Ans: A
18.It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes
more, if 200 km is done by trai and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is :
A) 2 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 4 D) 4 : 3
Ans: C
19. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the
length of the goods train ?
A) 230 m B) 240 m C) 260 m D) 270 m
Ans: D
20. A 300 metre long train crosses platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the
length of the platform ?
A) 320 m B) 350 m C) 650 m D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
21. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at
the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train
A) 230 m B) 240 m C) 260 m D) 320 m E) None of these
Ans: A
22. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a
place and come back, how far is the place ?
A) 2.4 km B) 2.5 km C) 3 km D) 3.6 km
Ans: A
23. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway
between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph,
what is the distance between A and B ?
A) 160 km B) 180 km C) 200 km D) 220 km
Ans : B
24. Peter invested an amount of Rs. 12000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. simple interest and another amount at the rate
of 20 p.c.p.a simple interest. The total interest earned at the end of one year on the total amount invested
become 14 p.c.p.a. Find the total amount invested.
A) 20,000 B) 22,000 C) 24,000 D) 25,000 E) None of these
Ans: A
25. The rates of simple interest in two banks A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. A person wants to deposit his total
savings in two banks in such a way that he received equal half-yearly interest from both. he should deposit the
savings in banks A and B in the ration :
A) 2 : 5 B) 4 : 5 C) 5 : 2 D) 5 : 4
Ans : B
26. What will be the cost of gardening 1 metre broad boundary around a rectangular plot having perimeter of 340
metres at the rate of Rs.10 per square metre ?
A) Rs. 1700 B) Rs. 3400 C) Rs. 3440 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Ans : C
27.The length and breadth of the floor of the room are 20 feet and 10 feet respectively. Square tiles of 2 feet length
of different colours are to be laid on the floor. Black tiles are laid in the first row on all sides. If white tiles are laid
in the one-third of the remaining and blue tiles in the rest, how many blue tiles will be there ?
A) 16 B) 24 C) 32 D) 48 E) one of these
Ans: A
28. A park square in shape has a 3 metre wide road inside it running along its sides. To area occupied by the road
is 1764 square metres. What is the perimeter along to outer edge of the road ?
A) 576 metres B) 600 metres C) 640 metres D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
29. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together
A) 5 min. past 7 B) 5 2/11 min. past 7 C) 5 3/11 min. past 7 D) 5 5/11 min. past 7
Ans: D
30. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m on the
following Monday. When was it correct ?
A) 2 p.m on Tuesday B) 2 p.m on Wednesday C) 3 p.m on Thursday D) 1 p.m on Friday
Ans: B
31. How many shares of market value Rs. 25 each can be purchased for Rs. 12750, brockerage being 2 % ?
A) 450 B) 500 C) 550 D) 600
Ans : B
32. A Man buys Rs. 50 shares in a company which pays 10% dividend. If the man gets 12.5% on his investment,
at what price did he buy the shares ?
A) Rs. 37.50 B) Rs. 40 C) Rs. 48 D) Rs. 52
Ans: B
33. In how many different ways can be letters of the word, 'RUMOUR' be arranged ?
A) 180 B) 90 C) 30 D) 720 E) None of these
Ans : A
34. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'AUCTION' be arranged in such a way that the vowels
always come together ?
A) 30 B) 48 C) 144 D) 576 E) none of these
Ans : D
35. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they be
selected such that at least one boy should be there ?
A) 159 B) 194 C) 205 D) 209 E) None of these
Ans: D
36. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white marbles. Three marbles are drawn at randum. What is the
probability that they are not of the same colour ?
A) 3/44 B) 3/55 C) 52/55 D) 41/44
Ans : D
37. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. what is the probability that it
is neither red nor green ?
A) 2/3 B) 3/4 C) 7/19 D) 8/21 E) 9/21
Ans : D
38. The true discount on Rs. 1760 due after a certain time at 12% per annum is Rs. 160. The time after which it is
due is
A) 6 months B) 8 months C) 9 months D) 10 months
Ans : D
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1-12 : Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE :Glaciers begin to form where snow remains year-round and enough of it accumulates to transform into ice. New layers of snow compress the previous layers and this compression forces the icy snow to re-crystallize, forming grains similar in size and shape to cane sugar. Gradually the grains grow larger and the air pockets between the grains get smaller, meaning that the snow slowly becomes more dense. After about two winters, the snow turns into firn, an intermediate state between snow and ice. Over time the larger ice crystals become more compressed and even denser, this is known as glacial ice. Glacial ice, because of its density and ice crystals, often takes a bluish or even green hue.
Answer questions 1- 5 based on passage .
1. Glaciers cannot form where snow does not remain all year round.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
2. Firn is less dense than snow but more dense than ice
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
3. Glacial ice is always greenish or bluish in color.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
4. Snow falls every year in areas where glaciers form.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: C
5. The increase in density is caused by the grains becoming smaller.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
PASSAGE :A power of attorney or letter of attorney in common law systems or mandate in civil law systems is an authorization to act on someone else's behalf in a legal or business matter. The person authorizing the other to act is the "principal" or "grantor", and the one authorized to act is the "agent" or "attorney-in-fact". The attorney-in-fact acts "in the principal's name," signing the principal's name to documents and filing suit with the principal's name as plaintiff, for example.
As one kind of agent, an attorney-in-fact is a fiduciary for the principal, so the law requires an attorney-in-fact to be completely honest with and loyal to the principal in their dealings with each other. If the attorney-in-fact is being paid to act for the principal, the contract is a separate matter from the power of attorney itself, so if that contract is in writing, it is a separate document, kept private between them, whereas the power of attorney is intended to be shown to various other people.
The power of attorney may be oral, such as asking someone else to sign your name on a cheque because your arm is broken, or may be in writing. Many institutions, such as hospitals, banks, and the I.R.S., require a power of attorney to be in writing before they will honor it, and they usually want to keep an original for their records.
Answer questions 6-10 based on passage .
6.The agent grants the principal the power to act on behalf of the grantor.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
7.All contracts between the principal and the agent must be made public.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
8. The power of attorney may be granted verbally.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
9. Only a legal professional can be granted the power of attorney.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: C
10. In civil law systems the power of attorney is referred to as a mandate.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
PASSAGE :Any one who has has systematic exam phases will have perceived a profound although not a prolif of asymmetry whether or not the exception is volitions and self control of spontaneous appeal to predict facial as symmetry as does the type of emotion portrayed. position can not displace symmetric at left side regret of a negative emotion is more common posed expression negation emotions are likely to be symmetric representation and where as symmetric occurs relative left sided expression is more common.
Answer questions 11-12 based on passage .
11. Any angry person is more likely to have left sided expression than some one who has smiling
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
12. An actor is likely to smile symmetric when acting
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
Questions = 82 ; time limit = 90 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test and a PSYCHOMETRY TEST also.
Section 1: VERBAL ( 32 Questions ,20 minutes )
Directions for questions 1-10:Find the synonyms of the following words
1. POTENTIAL
a. latent b. hysterical c. conventional d. symmetrical
Ans: a
2. EXTRICATE
a. terminate b. isolate c. liberate d. simplify
Ans: c
3. DISPARITY
a. inequality b. impartiality c. unfairness d. twist
Ans: a
4. TO CONFISCATE
a. to harass b. to repulse c. to console d. to appropriate
Ans: d
5. PIOUS
a. historic b. devout c. multiple d. fortunate
Ans: b
6. CARGO
a. cabbage b. camel c. lance d. freight
Ans: d
7. OVATION
a. oration b. gesture c. emulation d. applause
Ans: d
8. Candid
A. intriguing B. sly C. frank D. cunning
Ans: C
9. Murky
A. overcast B. dazzling C. Clear D. fulgurant
Ans: A
10. Guile
A. Openness B. slyness C. fair-dealing D. ingenuousness
Ans: B
Directions for questions 11-20:Find the Antonyms of the following words
11. Stern
A. Lenient B. Crabby C. Tenant D. Unreasonable
Ans: A
12.spry
A. agile B. young C. adult D. doddering
Ans: D
14. spurn
A. weave B. turn C. sew D. embrace
Ans: D
15. slothful
A. summit B. animal C. lazy D. industrious
Ans: D
16. sluggish
A. wasteful B. brisk C. baseball D. chilly
Ans: B
17.scrawny
A. bane B. skinny C. obese D. lean
Ans: C
18. tolerance
A. intolerance B. forbearance C. lenience D. acceptance
Ans: A
19. susceptible
A. sensitive B. swayable C. amenable D. impervious
Ans: D
20. stingy
A. miserly B. generous C. parsimonious D. sparing
Ans: B
Directions for Questions 21-26: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict with greater accuracy a genetic disorder. It is not yet in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not yet been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic mis-information can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferiors. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the U.S.A, U.K and Japan. It remains to be seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.
21. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the phrase 'holding out' as used in the passage
A) catching B) expounding C) sustaining D) restraining E) controlling
Ans: B
22. According to the passage, the question of abortion is
A) ignored B) hotly debated C) unanswered D) left to the scientists to decide E) already settled
Ans: B
23. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word 'obliterate' as used in the passage.
A) wipe off B) eradicate C) give birth to D) wipe out E) very literate
Ans: B
24. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to the word 'charged' as used in the passage
A) calm B) disturbed C) discharged D) settled E) peaceful
Ans: D
25. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement.
A) Possibility of abuse
B) It is confronted by ethical problems
C) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells
D) acquired ability to detect genetic disorders in unborn babies.
E) acquired ability to manipulate tissue cells
Ans: C
26. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word 'feat' as used in the passage
A) process B) focus C) fact D) possibility E) goal
Ans: E
Directions 27-32 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
27. He preferred cricket.....................any other sport.
A) against B) to C) over D) than
Ans: B
28. There is a disturbing nexus.....................politics and sports in India
A) between B) with C) among D) by
Ans: A
29.Don't loiter.................the street
A) in B) about C) on D) into
Ans: B
30. The terms given to you are not acceptable ..............me
A) for B) by C) with D) to
Ans: D
31. You have played a great role, for ..................your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.
A) after B) despite C) unless D) although E) without
Ans: E
32. Fate smiled..............him in all his ventures
A) upon B) on C) at D) over
Ans: B
Section 2: QUANTITATIVE/LOGICAL REASONING ( 38 questions , 40 minutes )
1. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got
increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is
A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 73
Ans: C
2. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be
43 kg, then the weight of B is
A) 17 kg B) 20 kg C) 26 kg D) 31 kg
Ans: D
3. The average monthly salary of 20 employees in an organisation is Rs. 1500. If the manager's salary is added,
then the average salary increases by Rs. 100. What is the manager's salary?
A) Rs.2000 R) Rs.2400 C) Rs. 3600 D) Rs.4800
Ans: C
4. The average of five consecutive numbers in n. If the next two numbers are also included, the average will :
A) remain the same B) increase by 1 C) increase by 1.4 D) increase by 2
Ans: B
5. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid.
If the total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got, was
A) 2700 B) 2900 C) 3000 D) 3100
Ans: A
6. Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 pe week by their employer. If X is paid 120 percent of the sum
paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week
A) Rs. 200 B) Rs. 250 C) Rs.300 C) Rs. None of these
Ans : B
7. A student secures 90%, 60% and 54% marks in test papers with 100, 150 and 200 respectively as maximum
marks. The percentage of his aggregate is
A) 64 B) 68 C) 70 D) None of these
Ans: A
8. A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit
will be
A) 40 B) 100 C) 120 D) 140
Ans: D
9. Profit earned by selling an article for Ra. 1060 is 20% more than the loss incurred by selling the article for
Rs. 950. At what price should be article be sold to earn 20% profit.?
A) 980 B) 1080 C) 1800 D) None of these
Ans: D
10. The ages of A and B are in the ration of 3:1. Fifteen years hence, the ratio will be 2:1 Their present ages are
A) 30 years, 10 years B) 45 years, 15 years C) 21 years, 7 years D) 60 years, 20 years
Ans: B
11. The electricity bill of a certain establishment is partly fixed and partly varies as the number of units of electricity
consumed. When in a certain month 540 units are consumed, the bill is Rs. 1800. In another month 620 units
are consumed and the bill is Rs. 2040. In yet another month 500 units are consumed. The bill for that month
would be
A) Rs.1560 B) Rs. 1680 C) Rs. 1840 D) Rs. 1950
Ans: B
12. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7: 2 and 7: 11 respectively.
If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be
A) 5:7 B) 5:9 C) 7:5 D) 9:5
Ans: C
13. Three men, four women and six children can complete a work in seven days. A women does double the work
a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this work in
7 days
A) 7 B) 8 C) 12 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Ans: A
14. A man, a women and a boy can complete a job in 3, 4 and 12 days respectively. How many boys must assist
1 man and 1 women to complete the job in 1/4 of a day.
A) 1 B) 4 C) 19 D) 41
Ans: D
15. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 12 days,
the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be :
A) 4 days B) 5 days C) 6 days D) 7 days
Ans: A
16. With a uniform speed a car covers the distance in 8 hours. Had the speed been increased by 4 km/hr, the same
distance could have been covered in 7/1/2 hours. What is the distance covered?
A) 420 km B) 480 km C) 640 km D) Cannot determined E) None of these
Ans: B
17. In a flight of 600 km, a aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was
reduced by 200 km/ hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The duration of the flight is :
A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours
Ans: A
18.It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes
more, if 200 km is done by trai and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is :
A) 2 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 4 D) 4 : 3
Ans: C
19. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the
length of the goods train ?
A) 230 m B) 240 m C) 260 m D) 270 m
Ans: D
20. A 300 metre long train crosses platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the
length of the platform ?
A) 320 m B) 350 m C) 650 m D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
21. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at
the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train
A) 230 m B) 240 m C) 260 m D) 320 m E) None of these
Ans: A
22. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a
place and come back, how far is the place ?
A) 2.4 km B) 2.5 km C) 3 km D) 3.6 km
Ans: A
23. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway
between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph,
what is the distance between A and B ?
A) 160 km B) 180 km C) 200 km D) 220 km
Ans : B
24. Peter invested an amount of Rs. 12000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. simple interest and another amount at the rate
of 20 p.c.p.a simple interest. The total interest earned at the end of one year on the total amount invested
become 14 p.c.p.a. Find the total amount invested.
A) 20,000 B) 22,000 C) 24,000 D) 25,000 E) None of these
Ans: A
25. The rates of simple interest in two banks A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. A person wants to deposit his total
savings in two banks in such a way that he received equal half-yearly interest from both. he should deposit the
savings in banks A and B in the ration :
A) 2 : 5 B) 4 : 5 C) 5 : 2 D) 5 : 4
Ans : B
26. What will be the cost of gardening 1 metre broad boundary around a rectangular plot having perimeter of 340
metres at the rate of Rs.10 per square metre ?
A) Rs. 1700 B) Rs. 3400 C) Rs. 3440 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Ans : C
27.The length and breadth of the floor of the room are 20 feet and 10 feet respectively. Square tiles of 2 feet length
of different colours are to be laid on the floor. Black tiles are laid in the first row on all sides. If white tiles are laid
in the one-third of the remaining and blue tiles in the rest, how many blue tiles will be there ?
A) 16 B) 24 C) 32 D) 48 E) one of these
Ans: A
28. A park square in shape has a 3 metre wide road inside it running along its sides. To area occupied by the road
is 1764 square metres. What is the perimeter along to outer edge of the road ?
A) 576 metres B) 600 metres C) 640 metres D) Data inadequate E) None of these
Ans: B
29. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together
A) 5 min. past 7 B) 5 2/11 min. past 7 C) 5 3/11 min. past 7 D) 5 5/11 min. past 7
Ans: D
30. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m on the
following Monday. When was it correct ?
A) 2 p.m on Tuesday B) 2 p.m on Wednesday C) 3 p.m on Thursday D) 1 p.m on Friday
Ans: B
31. How many shares of market value Rs. 25 each can be purchased for Rs. 12750, brockerage being 2 % ?
A) 450 B) 500 C) 550 D) 600
Ans : B
32. A Man buys Rs. 50 shares in a company which pays 10% dividend. If the man gets 12.5% on his investment,
at what price did he buy the shares ?
A) Rs. 37.50 B) Rs. 40 C) Rs. 48 D) Rs. 52
Ans: B
33. In how many different ways can be letters of the word, 'RUMOUR' be arranged ?
A) 180 B) 90 C) 30 D) 720 E) None of these
Ans : A
34. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'AUCTION' be arranged in such a way that the vowels
always come together ?
A) 30 B) 48 C) 144 D) 576 E) none of these
Ans : D
35. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they be
selected such that at least one boy should be there ?
A) 159 B) 194 C) 205 D) 209 E) None of these
Ans: D
36. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white marbles. Three marbles are drawn at randum. What is the
probability that they are not of the same colour ?
A) 3/44 B) 3/55 C) 52/55 D) 41/44
Ans : D
37. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. what is the probability that it
is neither red nor green ?
A) 2/3 B) 3/4 C) 7/19 D) 8/21 E) 9/21
Ans : D
38. The true discount on Rs. 1760 due after a certain time at 12% per annum is Rs. 160. The time after which it is
due is
A) 6 months B) 8 months C) 9 months D) 10 months
Ans : D
Section 3: CRITICAL REASONING ( 12 questions , 30 minutes)
Directions 1-12 : Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE :Glaciers begin to form where snow remains year-round and enough of it accumulates to transform into ice. New layers of snow compress the previous layers and this compression forces the icy snow to re-crystallize, forming grains similar in size and shape to cane sugar. Gradually the grains grow larger and the air pockets between the grains get smaller, meaning that the snow slowly becomes more dense. After about two winters, the snow turns into firn, an intermediate state between snow and ice. Over time the larger ice crystals become more compressed and even denser, this is known as glacial ice. Glacial ice, because of its density and ice crystals, often takes a bluish or even green hue.
Answer questions 1- 5 based on passage .
1. Glaciers cannot form where snow does not remain all year round.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
2. Firn is less dense than snow but more dense than ice
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
3. Glacial ice is always greenish or bluish in color.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
4. Snow falls every year in areas where glaciers form.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: C
5. The increase in density is caused by the grains becoming smaller.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
PASSAGE :A power of attorney or letter of attorney in common law systems or mandate in civil law systems is an authorization to act on someone else's behalf in a legal or business matter. The person authorizing the other to act is the "principal" or "grantor", and the one authorized to act is the "agent" or "attorney-in-fact". The attorney-in-fact acts "in the principal's name," signing the principal's name to documents and filing suit with the principal's name as plaintiff, for example.
As one kind of agent, an attorney-in-fact is a fiduciary for the principal, so the law requires an attorney-in-fact to be completely honest with and loyal to the principal in their dealings with each other. If the attorney-in-fact is being paid to act for the principal, the contract is a separate matter from the power of attorney itself, so if that contract is in writing, it is a separate document, kept private between them, whereas the power of attorney is intended to be shown to various other people.
The power of attorney may be oral, such as asking someone else to sign your name on a cheque because your arm is broken, or may be in writing. Many institutions, such as hospitals, banks, and the I.R.S., require a power of attorney to be in writing before they will honor it, and they usually want to keep an original for their records.
Answer questions 6-10 based on passage .
6.The agent grants the principal the power to act on behalf of the grantor.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
7.All contracts between the principal and the agent must be made public.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
8. The power of attorney may be granted verbally.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
9. Only a legal professional can be granted the power of attorney.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: C
10. In civil law systems the power of attorney is referred to as a mandate.
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
PASSAGE :Any one who has has systematic exam phases will have perceived a profound although not a prolif of asymmetry whether or not the exception is volitions and self control of spontaneous appeal to predict facial as symmetry as does the type of emotion portrayed. position can not displace symmetric at left side regret of a negative emotion is more common posed expression negation emotions are likely to be symmetric representation and where as symmetric occurs relative left sided expression is more common.
Answer questions 11-12 based on passage .
11. Any angry person is more likely to have left sided expression than some one who has smiling
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: A
12. An actor is likely to smile symmetric when acting
A. True B. False C. Can't say
Ans: B
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